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RBTPracticeExam

RBT Exam Questions and Answers (2026)

Every one of our 195 practice questions, with the correct answer marked and a full written explanation covering why that answer is right and why each of the other three is wrong. No timer, no scoring — this is the reading version.

Aligned to the RBT Task List 3rd Edition (effective 1 January 2026) · Last content review: August 2026 · How we write our questions

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A. Data Collection and Graphing

Formerly the Measurement domain

35 questions · ~17% of the real exam (13 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.1easy

Marcus, an RBT, is writing a target definition for his client Dana. Which of the following is written in observable and measurable terms?

  1. A.Dana becomes frustrated during math work.
  2. B.Dana pushes her worksheet off the desk with her hand or forearm.Correct
  3. C.Dana dislikes non-preferred tasks.
  4. D.Dana has a bad attitude about independent work.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. An observable, measurable definition describes a movement a second observer could see and count — pushing the worksheet off the desk qualifies, and two RBTs watching the same session would agree on whether it happened.

A is wrong because "frustrated" is a private event you infer rather than see; you cannot count frustration. C is wrong for the same reason — "dislikes" is an interpretation of a mental state, not a behavior. D is wrong because "bad attitude" is a subjective label that different observers would score differently, which is exactly what an operational definition exists to prevent.

Question 2

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3medium

Priya, an RBT, records that her client Theo left his seat 12 times during a 40-minute session. Her supervisor asks her to report the rate of the behavior. What should Priya report?

  1. A.0.3 responses per minuteCorrect
  2. B.12 occurrences
  3. C.40 minutes of out-of-seat behavior
  4. D.3.3 minutes per occurrence

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Rate is a count divided by the time of the observation period: 12 ÷ 40 minutes = 0.3 responses per minute. Reporting rate rather than raw count lets sessions of different lengths be compared to each other.

B is wrong because 12 is the frequency (the raw count), not the rate — it has no time unit attached. C is wrong because it describes duration, which measures how long behavior lasts, not how often it occurs. D is wrong because it inverts the calculation into an average interval between responses; that is closer to inter-response time and is not what rate means.

Question 3

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3medium

An RBT is asked to measure how long it takes her client to begin putting on his coat after she says "Time to go outside." Which measurement procedure is she being asked to use?

  1. A.Duration
  2. B.Partial-interval recording
  3. C.Inter-response time
  4. D.LatencyCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Latency is the elapsed time between the onset of a stimulus — here the instruction "Time to go outside" — and the beginning of the response. It answers "how long before he starts?"

A is wrong because duration measures how long the behavior lasts once it has begun, not the delay before it starts. C is wrong because inter-response time measures the gap between the end of one response and the start of the next response, which requires two responses and no instruction. B is wrong because partial-interval recording is a discontinuous estimate of whether behavior occurred within blocks of time; it cannot produce a time-to-onset figure.

Question 4

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4hard

An RBT uses partial-interval recording with 30-second intervals to measure her client's hand-flapping. Her supervisor cautions her about a known limitation of this procedure. What is that limitation?

  1. A.It tends to underestimate how much the behavior actually occurs.
  2. B.It tends to overestimate how much the behavior actually occurs.Correct
  3. C.It can only be used with behaviors that have a clear beginning and end.
  4. D.It produces a rate measure that cannot be graphed.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. In partial-interval recording an interval is scored if the behavior occurs at any point within it, even for one second. A behavior occurring briefly in every interval scores 100%, which overstates how much of the session it actually filled.

A is wrong — underestimation is the known bias of whole-interval recording, which requires the behavior to persist for the entire interval. C is wrong because discontinuous procedures are commonly chosen precisely for behaviors with unclear boundaries; it is continuous duration recording that needs clean onset and offset. D is wrong because interval data yields a percentage of intervals, which graphs perfectly well.

Question 5

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4hard

A supervisor wants to increase Jamal's on-task behavior and asks his RBT to select a measurement procedure that will not credit brief moments of on-task responding as a full interval. Which procedure best fits?

  1. A.Whole-interval recordingCorrect
  2. B.Partial-interval recording
  3. C.Frequency recording
  4. D.Permanent-product recording

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Whole-interval recording scores an interval only when the behavior occurs throughout its entire length, so a two-second glance at the worksheet does not count. That conservative bias is exactly why it is typically paired with behaviors you are trying to increase.

B is wrong because partial-interval scores the interval for any occurrence, which would credit the brief moments the supervisor wants excluded. C is wrong because on-task behavior is continuous rather than discrete — counting "how many times" someone is on task is not meaningful. D is wrong because permanent product measures a physical outcome left behind, which does not capture whether the client was engaged throughout.

Question 6

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4medium

An RBT is using momentary time sampling with 5-minute intervals across a 60-minute group activity. How does she score each interval?

  1. A.She scores it if the behavior occurred at any time during the 5 minutes.
  2. B.She scores it if the behavior occurred for the full 5 minutes.
  3. C.She records the total number of occurrences within the 5 minutes.
  4. D.She scores it based on whether the behavior is occurring at the moment the interval ends.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Momentary time sampling requires the observer to look only at the designated moment — typically the end of each interval — and score whether the behavior is occurring right then. Between those moments the observer is free to do other things, which is why it suits RBTs running a group.

A is wrong because that describes partial-interval recording. B is wrong because that describes whole-interval recording. C is wrong because counting every occurrence is frequency recording, a continuous procedure that defeats the labour-saving purpose of time sampling.

Question 7

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.5easy

Which of the following is an example of permanent-product recording?

  1. A.Counting the number of completed math problems on a worksheet after the session.Correct
  2. B.Timing how long a client takes to finish lunch.
  3. C.Counting the number of times a client raises his hand during circle time.
  4. D.Scoring 15-second intervals for whether vocal stereotypy occurred.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Permanent-product recording measures the lasting physical outcome the behavior produced, after the fact. The completed worksheet still exists when the session is over, so the RBT never had to watch the responses happen.

C is wrong because that is frequency recording performed in real time as the behavior occurs. B is wrong because that is duration recording, which also requires live observation. D is wrong because that is partial-interval recording, a discontinuous live-observation procedure. None of the three leaves behind a product that can be measured later.

Question 8

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7hard

Two RBTs independently count a client's vocal protests during the same 20-minute observation. Alina records 18 and Ben records 15. Using total count IOA, what is their agreement?

  1. A.94%
  2. B.88%
  3. C.83%Correct
  4. D.120%

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Total count IOA divides the smaller count by the larger count and multiplies by 100: 15 ÷ 18 = 0.833, or 83%.

B is wrong — 88% does not follow from these numbers under any standard IOA formula. A is wrong for the same reason; 94% would require the counts to be much closer together, such as 17 and 18. D is wrong because it divides the larger by the smaller (18 ÷ 15 = 120%). IOA is a measure of agreement and can never exceed 100%, so any answer above 100% signals the calculation was inverted.

Question 9

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7medium

Why does a supervisor periodically ask two staff members to collect data on the same behavior at the same time?

  1. A.To make sure the client performs consistently across different staff.
  2. B.To satisfy the requirement that all sessions have two staff present.
  3. C.To reduce the total amount of time staff spend collecting data.
  4. D.To check that the measurement system is being applied consistently, so the data can be trusted.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Interobserver agreement checks the measurement system, not the client. High agreement gives confidence that the numbers on the graph reflect the behavior rather than one observer's idiosyncratic scoring.

A is wrong because IOA says nothing about the client's consistency — both observers are watching the same behavior at the same moment. C is wrong because IOA increases staffing cost during those sessions rather than reducing it. B is wrong because there is no general requirement for two staff in every session; IOA is conducted periodically on a sample of sessions.

Question 10

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6medium

An RBT is graphing session data on a line graph. On which axis does she plot the sessions, and on which does she plot the behavior measure?

  1. A.Sessions on the x-axis, behavior on the y-axis.Correct
  2. B.Sessions on the y-axis, behavior on the x-axis.
  3. C.Both are plotted on the y-axis.
  4. D.Either arrangement is acceptable as long as it is labelled.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. By convention the horizontal x-axis carries the passage of time — sessions or dates — and the vertical y-axis carries the dependent variable, the behavior measure. This is what lets a reader see change over time at a glance.

B is wrong because it reverses the convention, producing a graph that no supervisor could read quickly. C is wrong because two variables cannot share one axis. D is wrong because graphing conventions in applied behavior analysis exist precisely so that graphs are interpretable without study; labelling does not make a reversed graph acceptable.

Question 11

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6medium

On a line graph, what does a vertical dashed line between two sets of data points indicate?

  1. A.A day on which no data were collected.
  2. B.A change in condition or phase, such as the start of an intervention.Correct
  3. C.The point at which the mastery criterion was met.
  4. D.An outlier that should be disregarded.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. A vertical phase-change line marks where conditions changed — baseline ending and intervention beginning, for example. Data paths are not connected across it, so the reader can compare the two conditions cleanly.

A is wrong because missing sessions are shown by a break in the data path, not a phase line. C is wrong because mastery is usually shown with a horizontal criterion line or a note, not a vertical one. D is wrong because outliers are never simply disregarded — every data point stays on the graph, and unusual sessions are explained in the notes.

Question 12

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6hard

Look at the graph below of Wren's independent requests across ten sessions.

Which statement best describes the data?

04812162012345678910SessionsIndependent requestsBaselineIntervention
Wren's independent requests per session
  1. A.The data show a flat trend across all ten sessions.
  2. B.Baseline is stable and low, and an increasing trend appears after the phase change.Correct
  3. C.The behavior decreased following the intervention.
  4. D.The data are too variable to interpret.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The four baseline points sit flat near 1 request per session with little bounce, and after the vertical phase-change line the points climb steadily from 4 to 16. That is a stable baseline followed by a clear increasing trend.

A is wrong because only the baseline is flat; the intervention phase rises sharply, so the description does not hold across all ten sessions. C is wrong because it reverses the direction — the values go up, not down. D is wrong because variability describes how much data bounce around; these points move in a consistent direction with very little scatter, which makes them easy rather than hard to interpret.

Question 13

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3hard

An RBT records that her client Sami engaged in three separate tantrums during a session, lasting 4 minutes, 7 minutes and 2 minutes. The session was 60 minutes long. What is the percentage of session time spent in tantrum?

  1. A.13%
  2. B.22%Correct
  3. C.4.3%
  4. D.39%

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Total duration is 4 + 7 + 2 = 13 minutes. As a proportion of the 60-minute session that is 13 ÷ 60 = 0.2167, or about 22%.

A is wrong because 13 is the total number of minutes, not a percentage — the conversion step was skipped. C is wrong because it appears to divide the mean episode length (about 4.3 minutes) by something, or reports mean duration as a percentage; either way it does not answer the question asked. D is wrong because it triples the correct figure, as if each of the three episodes lasted 13 minutes rather than 13 minutes in total.

Question 14

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.2easy

An RBT arrives for a session and realises she does not have the datasheet specified in the client's program. What should she do?

  1. A.Skip data collection for this session and note that the datasheet was missing.
  2. B.Collect the data on a blank sheet of paper and transfer it later that day.Correct
  3. C.Estimate the data at the end of the session from memory.
  4. D.Use a datasheet from a different client and cross out the name.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Preparing for data collection includes solving problems when materials are missing. Recording accurately in the moment on any available paper, then transferring it to the correct form the same day, preserves the integrity of the data.

A is wrong because a lost session of data creates a hole in the graph that a supervisor needs for treatment decisions; the problem was solvable. C is wrong because reconstructing data from memory produces numbers that are not real data, which is a documentation and ethics violation, not just sloppiness. D is wrong because writing one client's data on another client's form is a confidentiality and record-keeping problem even with the name crossed out.

Question 15

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3hard

An RBT is measuring inter-response time (IRT) for her client's hand-raising. Which of the following is she timing?

  1. A.From the instruction to the start of the first hand-raise.
  2. B.From the start of one hand-raise to the end of that same hand-raise.
  3. C.From the end of one hand-raise to the beginning of the next hand-raise.Correct
  4. D.The total time across the session during which the hand was raised.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Inter-response time measures the interval between two consecutive responses — specifically from the end of one to the onset of the next. It describes how spread out responding is, which is why it is used alongside DRL procedures.

A is wrong because that is latency, timed from a stimulus rather than from a previous response. B is wrong because that is duration, the length of a single response. D is wrong because that is total duration across the session, a summed measure that says nothing about the gaps between responses.

Question 16

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7medium

During an IOA check, an RBT notices that the second observer is watching her datasheet and adjusting her own scoring to match. Why is this a problem?

  1. A.It slows down the observation.
  2. B.It means the session cannot be billed.
  3. C.It violates the client's confidentiality.
  4. D.It makes the agreement figure meaningless because the observations are no longer independent.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. IOA only tells you something if the two observers score independently. Once one observer copies the other, high agreement is guaranteed and reveals nothing about whether the measurement system is being applied consistently.

A is wrong because speed is irrelevant to the validity problem, and copying would if anything be faster. C is wrong because both observers are authorised members of the client's team, so no confidentiality breach has occurred. B is wrong because billing depends on services delivered and documented, not on how the IOA check was conducted.

Question 17

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.1medium

Which definition of "aggression" would produce the highest agreement between two observers?

  1. A.Any act intended to hurt another person.
  2. B.Losing control during difficult tasks.
  3. C.Being violent toward staff or peers.
  4. D.Hitting, kicking, or biting another person, including attempts that do not make contact.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. It names specific topographies — hitting, kicking, biting — and explicitly resolves the common edge case of near-misses. Two observers reading it would score the same events the same way.

A is wrong because intent cannot be observed; observers would have to guess at what the client meant. C is wrong because "violent" is a summary label, not a description of movement, and each observer would draw the line differently. B is wrong because "losing control" is both an inference and vague about what behaviors count, which is the opposite of what an operational definition needs to do.

Question 18

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6medium

An RBT finishes a session and realises she recorded 4 mands but wrote 14 on the graph. She notices the error two days later. What should she do?

  1. A.Leave the graph as it is, since the session has already been reviewed.
  2. B.Correct the entry following her agency's correction procedure and inform her supervisor.Correct
  3. C.Erase the point and redraw it so the graph looks clean.
  4. D.Add a note next to the point but leave the incorrect value plotted.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Data errors are corrected through the documented correction process — which keeps an audit trail — and the supervisor is told because a wrong data point may already have influenced a treatment decision.

A is wrong because leaving known-false data in the record is a documentation violation, and the review that already happened is precisely why it must be flagged. C is wrong because silently erasing removes the audit trail that record-keeping requirements exist to preserve. D is wrong because a note beside an uncorrected point still leaves the graph showing a value the RBT knows is false.

Question 19

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3easy

Which behavior is best measured using frequency (event) recording?

  1. A.Discrete instances of a client saying "help" during a work task.Correct
  2. B.Ongoing hand-flapping that lasts several minutes at a time.
  3. C.How long a client stays seated at circle time.
  4. D.Whether a client is on-task at the end of each 5-minute interval.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Frequency recording needs behaviors that are discrete — with a clear beginning and end — and of roughly uniform length, so each occurrence counts as one. Saying "help" fits both requirements.

B is wrong because continuous hand-flapping has no clean boundary between occurrences, so counting produces unreliable numbers; duration or interval recording suits it better. C is wrong because "how long" is a duration question. D is wrong because that describes momentary time sampling, a discontinuous procedure, not a count of occurrences.

Question 20

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7medium

Two observers score 20 intervals of a client's stereotypy. They agree on 17 intervals and disagree on 3. What is the interval-by-interval IOA?

  1. A.94%
  2. B.17%
  3. C.88%
  4. D.85%Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Interval-by-interval IOA divides the number of agreements by the total number of intervals (agreements plus disagreements) and multiplies by 100: 17 ÷ 20 = 0.85, or 85%.

B is wrong because 17 is the raw count of agreements, not a percentage. C is wrong because 88% would arise from a different pair of numbers, such as agreements on 15 of 17 intervals. A is wrong for the same reason — 94% would require agreement on roughly 19 of 20 intervals, which is not what the question states.

Question 21

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4hard

A supervisor wants an estimate of how much of a 2-hour community outing a client spends engaged in conversation, but the RBT will also be supervising the client's safety throughout. Which procedure is most practical?

  1. A.Continuous duration recording
  2. B.Momentary time sampling with 10-minute intervalsCorrect
  3. C.Frequency recording of every utterance
  4. D.Permanent-product recording

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Momentary time sampling requires the RBT to observe only at the end of each interval, freeing her attention in between — which matters when she is simultaneously responsible for safety in the community. It yields a usable estimate of how much of the outing involved conversation.

A is wrong because continuous duration recording demands unbroken attention on the stopwatch for two hours, which is incompatible with supervising safety. C is wrong because counting every utterance is even more attention-intensive and answers "how often", not "how much of the time". D is wrong because conversation leaves no physical product to measure afterward.

Question 22

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6hard

Look at the graph below.

Which description best characterises the data in the intervention phase?

051015202512345678910SessionsDisruptionsBaselineIntervention
Disruptions per session
  1. A.A clear decreasing trend with low variability.
  2. B.A stable level with no change from baseline.
  3. C.An increasing trend compared with baseline.
  4. D.A reduced overall level but high variability between sessions.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Every intervention point sits below the baseline band of roughly 19–21, so the overall level has dropped — but the points swing between about 2 and 16 from session to session, which is high variability. Both features have to be reported together.

A is wrong because a decreasing trend would require the points to move consistently downward; here they zig-zag with no direction. B is wrong because the level plainly changed — no intervention point comes near the baseline band. C is wrong because it reverses the direction of the level change.

Question 23

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.1medium

An RBT's session note reads: "Client was defiant and refused most of the work presented." Her supervisor asks her to rewrite it. Which rewrite is best?

  1. A."Client was uncooperative and did not want to work today."
  2. B."Client refused work because he was tired from a poor night's sleep."
  3. C."Client had a rough day and struggled with compliance."
  4. D."Client completed 3 of 12 presented tasks; on 9 trials he pushed materials away and did not respond within 10 seconds."Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. It replaces every label with countable events: how many tasks were presented, how many were completed, and exactly what the client did on the remaining trials. Anyone reading it can picture the session.

A is wrong because "uncooperative" and "did not want to" are the same inferences as the original, just reworded. C is wrong because "rough day" and "struggled" are vaguer than what they replace. B is wrong because it adds a causal claim about sleep that the RBT did not observe — and stating an unverified cause in a clinical record is a bigger problem than the original vagueness.

Question 24

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3medium

A client's plan requires duration recording for tantrums. During a session the client tantrums from 10:02:00 to 10:06:30, and again from 10:21:00 to 10:23:00. What is the total duration?

  1. A.4 minutes 30 seconds
  2. B.21 minutes
  3. C.2 minutes
  4. D.6 minutes 30 secondsCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The first episode runs 4 minutes 30 seconds and the second runs 2 minutes. Total duration sums every episode: 4:30 + 2:00 = 6 minutes 30 seconds.

A is wrong because it reports only the first episode and ignores the second. C is wrong because it reports only the second episode. B is wrong because it measures from the start of the first tantrum to the end of the second, which includes the 15 minutes between them when no tantrum was occurring — that is elapsed time, not duration of behavior.

Question 25

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.2easy

Which of the following should an RBT confirm before the session begins in order to collect data correctly?

  1. A.The client's diagnosis and medication history.
  2. B.The family's satisfaction with previous sessions.
  3. C.The supervisor's availability for the following week.
  4. D.The operational definition of each target behavior and the measurement procedure specified.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. You cannot record accurately unless you know exactly what counts as an occurrence and which procedure to use. Confirming both before the session is the core of preparing for data collection.

A is wrong because diagnosis and medication are not what determine how you score a behavior, and reviewing records beyond what your role requires raises confidentiality questions. C is wrong because scheduling is unrelated to today's data. B is wrong because family satisfaction, while important, has no bearing on how a behavior is measured.

Question 26

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4hard

An RBT scores 10-second whole-interval data on a client's in-seat behavior across a 5-minute observation (30 intervals). The client was in his seat for the entire interval in 12 intervals. What does she report?

  1. A.12 occurrences of in-seat behavior
  2. B.40% of intervals with in-seat behaviorCorrect
  3. C.12 minutes of in-seat behavior
  4. D.2.4 responses per minute

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Interval data are reported as a percentage of intervals scored: 12 ÷ 30 = 0.40, or 40% of intervals.

A is wrong because interval procedures do not count occurrences — an interval scored does not equal one instance of behavior. C is wrong because 12 intervals of 10 seconds is 2 minutes, not 12, and interval data are an estimate rather than a true duration. D is wrong because rate requires a count of discrete responses, which whole-interval recording does not produce.

Question 27

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.5medium

An RBT uses permanent-product recording to measure how many toys her client puts away. Which is the main limitation she should keep in mind?

  1. A.It requires her to observe the behavior as it happens.
  2. B.It always overestimates the behavior.
  3. C.It cannot be graphed.
  4. D.It cannot tell her whether the client actually performed the behavior independently.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Permanent product measures only the outcome. Twelve toys in the bin looks identical whether the client did it alone, did it with hand-over-hand prompting, or a sibling did it — the product does not record who produced it or how.

A is wrong because not needing to observe live is the procedure's main advantage, not a limitation. C is wrong because counts of products graph like any other count. B is wrong because there is no systematic direction of error; the count is accurate, it is the attribution that is uncertain.

Question 28

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6easy

An RBT's agency requires session data to be entered within 24 hours. She is behind and enters four sessions' data at the end of the week from memory. What is the primary problem?

  1. A.The entered values are not accurate data, and treatment decisions may be based on them.Correct
  2. B.She violated a scheduling preference of the agency.
  3. C.She should have asked a colleague to enter them instead.
  4. D.Nothing, provided the totals are approximately right.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Data reconstructed from memory are estimates presented as measurements. A supervisor reading the graph cannot tell the difference, and may change or discontinue a program on the strength of numbers that were never recorded.

B is wrong because this is not a mere preference — accuracy and timeliness are documentation requirements. C is wrong because a colleague who was not present could not produce the data either. D is wrong because "approximately right" is not a standard that applies to clinical data; fabricated-but-plausible numbers are still fabricated.

Question 29

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3hard

An RBT is told to record latency to compliance. She starts her stopwatch when she delivers the instruction and stops it when the client finishes the task. What has she done wrong?

  1. A.She should have stopped timing when the client began the task, not when he finished.Correct
  2. B.Nothing — that is correct latency recording.
  3. C.She should have started timing when the client began the task.
  4. D.She should have used a count rather than a timer.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Latency is the time from the onset of the stimulus to the onset of the response. Timing all the way to completion combines latency with duration and yields a number that is neither.

B is wrong because the stop point is incorrect, so the measure is invalid. C is wrong because starting at response onset would eliminate the delay that latency exists to measure. D is wrong because latency is inherently a time-based measure; a count could not answer "how long before he started?"

Question 30

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7medium

An agency's standard is that IOA should be at or above 80%. An RBT and her colleague obtain 62% agreement on a new target behavior. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. A.Notify the supervisor so the definition and training can be reviewed.Correct
  2. B.Average the two observers' data and use that on the graph.
  3. C.Use the more experienced observer's data and discard the other's.
  4. D.Repeat the check until agreement reaches 80%.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Low agreement is a signal that the operational definition is ambiguous or that observers were trained differently. That is the supervisor's problem to solve, and it must be solved before the data can be trusted.

B is wrong because averaging two disagreeing observers hides the problem instead of fixing it, and produces a number neither observer recorded. C is wrong because experience does not establish which observer scored correctly; the definition may be at fault. D is wrong because repeating the check without changing anything is just waiting for a chance result that clears the threshold.

Question 31

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.4medium

Which statement about discontinuous measurement is accurate?

  1. A.It records every occurrence of the behavior.
  2. B.It is always more accurate than continuous measurement.
  3. C.It samples behavior and produces an estimate rather than an exact count.Correct
  4. D.It can only be used with academic behaviors.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Discontinuous procedures — partial interval, whole interval, momentary time sampling — deliberately sample rather than capture everything, trading some accuracy for practicality when an RBT cannot watch continuously.

A is wrong because capturing every occurrence is the definition of continuous measurement. B is wrong because the trade-off runs the other way: continuous measurement is more accurate, and discontinuous procedures carry known directional biases. D is wrong because discontinuous procedures are used across all behavior types and are especially common with stereotypy and engagement.

Question 32

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.6medium

A supervisor asks an RBT what the level of the data is in the current phase. What is the supervisor asking about?

  1. A.The direction the data are moving.
  2. B.How much the data points bounce from session to session.
  3. C.The number of sessions in the phase.
  4. D.The magnitude of the data on the y-axis, typically its average value in that phase.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Level refers to where the data sit on the vertical axis — the typical or average value within a phase. It is one of the three standard features read from a graph.

A is wrong because direction is trend. B is wrong because session-to-session bounce is variability. C is wrong because the number of sessions is simply the phase length and is read from the x-axis, not a characteristic of the data path.

Question 33

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.1hard

Two RBTs are recording "elopement", defined as "leaving the designated area without permission". Alina scores an instance when the client steps one foot outside the classroom doorway; Ben does not. What is the most likely cause of the disagreement?

  1. A.One of the RBTs is not paying attention.
  2. B.The behavior is occurring too quickly to score.
  3. C.The definition does not specify how far the client must move for an occurrence to count.Correct
  4. D.Elopement cannot be measured with frequency recording.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The definition leaves the boundary undefined, so each observer supplies their own threshold. Adding a criterion — for example, "moves more than three feet beyond the doorway" — resolves it.

A is wrong because both observers saw the same event; they scored it differently, which is a definition problem rather than an attention problem. B is wrong because speed is not the issue when both observers detected the event. D is wrong because elopement is a discrete behavior that frequency recording handles well once the definition is tightened.

Question 34

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.3medium

Which pair of measures would best answer the question "Is Kofi's tantrum behavior getting shorter, even though it happens just as often?"

  1. A.Frequency and rate
  2. B.Partial interval and whole interval
  3. C.Latency and inter-response time
  4. D.Frequency and durationCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The question contains two separate claims — how often (frequency) and how long each episode lasts (duration) — so both dimensions must be measured to answer it.

A is wrong because frequency and rate measure the same dimension; rate is just frequency divided by time, so the pair says nothing about episode length. C is wrong because latency measures delay to onset and IRT measures gaps between responses; neither captures how long a tantrum lasts. B is wrong because two interval procedures would both give estimates of the same dimension and neither yields a clean count.

Question 35

A. Data Collection and GraphingTask A.7easy

An RBT realises partway through a session that she has been scoring a behavior using the wrong definition. What should she do with the data already collected?

  1. A.Include it, since some data is better than none.
  2. B.Delete the session entirely and say nothing.
  3. C.Note what happened, flag the affected data, and tell her supervisor.Correct
  4. D.Adjust the numbers so they match what the correct definition would have produced.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The honest response is to preserve the record, mark clearly which portion is affected, and let the supervisor decide whether the data are usable. That protects both the graph and the audit trail.

A is wrong because data collected under the wrong definition measure a different behavior, so mixing it in corrupts the graph. B is wrong because deleting records and concealing the error is a documentation violation regardless of intent. D is wrong because retroactively adjusting numbers to what they "would have been" is fabrication — the RBT has no way to know what the correct definition would have yielded.

B. Behavior Assessment

Formerly the Assessment domain

24 questions · ~11% of the real exam (8 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2medium

Nadia, an RBT, presents six items to her client Eli. Eli selects one, Nadia removes it, and she presents the remaining five. She repeats this until all items are chosen. Which preference assessment is she conducting?

  1. A.Multiple stimulus without replacement (MSWO)Correct
  2. B.Paired-stimulus (forced choice)
  3. C.Multiple stimulus with replacement (MSWR)
  4. D.Free-operant observation

Why this is the answer

A is correct. MSWO presents an array, removes the selected item, and re-presents the smaller array. The order of selection produces a ranked hierarchy of preference, which is why MSWO is so widely used before sessions.

B is wrong because paired-stimulus presents exactly two items at a time and works through every possible pair. C is wrong because with replacement the chosen item is returned to the array, so the array size never shrinks. D is wrong because free-operant involves no presentation at all — the RBT simply watches what the client engages with when everything is freely available.

Question 2

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2medium

A client has a history of grabbing and becoming upset when items are removed from him. Which preference assessment format is likely most appropriate?

  1. A.MSWO
  2. B.Paired-stimulus
  3. C.Free-operant observationCorrect
  4. D.Multiple stimulus without replacement with 8 items

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Free-operant observation requires no items to be taken away — the client has open access and the RBT records what he engages with and for how long. That avoids evoking the very behavior the question describes.

A is wrong because MSWO removes the selected item after every trial, which is exactly the situation that upsets this client. B is wrong because paired-stimulus also involves repeatedly removing items between trials. D is wrong for the same reason as A, and a larger array means more removals, not fewer.

Question 3

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.5hard

A client has just finished a large snack. During the next teaching session, edible reinforcers appear to have little effect on his responding. What has most likely occurred?

  1. A.An establishing operation for food
  2. B.An abolishing operation for foodCorrect
  3. C.Extinction of the target behavior
  4. D.Stimulus generalization

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Satiation is an abolishing operation: it momentarily decreases the value of food as a reinforcer and therefore decreases behavior that has produced food in the past. The reinforcer has not stopped working permanently — its value has temporarily dropped.

A is wrong because an establishing operation increases reinforcer value, which is what deprivation does. C is wrong because extinction means the reinforcer is being withheld after responding; here it is still being delivered, it simply no longer motivates. D is wrong because stimulus generalization concerns responding to similar stimuli, which is unrelated to motivation.

Question 4

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4medium

An RBT is asked to collect ABC data. What should she record?

  1. A.The client's age, behavior and communication level.
  2. B.What happened immediately before the behavior, the behavior itself, and what happened immediately after.Correct
  3. C.The antecedent, the baseline and the criterion for mastery.
  4. D.A running count of the behavior in 10-minute blocks.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. ABC stands for antecedent, behavior, consequence. Recording all three lets the supervisor look for patterns that suggest what is maintaining the behavior.

A is wrong because those are client characteristics, not a description of an event sequence. C is wrong because it substitutes unrelated terms for B and C; baseline and mastery criteria belong to program design, not descriptive assessment. D is wrong because a time-blocked count is a measurement procedure that captures how often the behavior happened but nothing about what surrounded it.

Question 5

B. Behavior AssessmentTask D.2medium

Every time Talia is asked to start handwriting, she throws her pencil, and her RBT then gives her a two-minute break. Which function does her pencil-throwing most likely serve?

  1. A.Access to attention
  2. B.Automatic reinforcement
  3. C.Access to tangibles
  4. D.Escape from a demandCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The behavior reliably follows a demand and reliably produces removal of that demand. Termination of the task is negative reinforcement, which makes escape the most likely function.

A is wrong because although the RBT interacts with Talia, the consistent consequence is removal of work rather than delivery of social attention. C is wrong because no preferred item is delivered — a break is not a tangible. B is wrong because automatic reinforcement is produced by the behavior itself, independent of anyone's response; here the behavior clearly depends on what the RBT does next.

Question 6

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.1medium

After running a preference assessment, an RBT notices the results differ sharply from last month's. What should she do?

  1. A.Report the new results to her supervisor and use the current hierarchy as directed.Correct
  2. B.Use last month's results, since they were based on more sessions.
  3. C.Combine the two lists and use whatever appears on both.
  4. D.Repeat the assessment until it matches the previous result.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Preferences shift, which is exactly why preference assessments are repeated. The RBT reports what she found and follows her supervisor's direction on how to use it.

B is wrong because older data do not describe what the client values today, and reinforcer effectiveness is a present-tense question. C is wrong because inventing a merged list is a clinical decision outside the RBT's role. D is wrong because re-running an assessment until it produces a desired answer is manipulating the result rather than measuring preference.

Question 7

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4hard

A BCBA is conducting a functional analysis and asks the RBT to run the attention condition. What should the RBT do during that condition?

  1. A.Present difficult tasks and remove them when problem behavior occurs.
  2. B.Withhold attention, then deliver brief attention contingent on the problem behavior.Correct
  3. C.Give the client free access to preferred items with no demands.
  4. D.Leave the client alone in the room with no materials.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The attention condition tests whether problem behavior is maintained by social attention. The RBT appears busy, withholds attention, and delivers a brief statement of concern only when the target behavior occurs.

A is wrong because that is the demand (escape) condition. C is wrong because free access with no demands is the control or play condition, which serves as the comparison. D is wrong because being alone with no materials is the alone condition, used to test automatic reinforcement.

Question 8

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.1easy

During an assessment, a parent asks the RBT, "Based on what you're seeing, does my son have a severe form of autism?" How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Explain that questions about diagnosis and severity are for the supervising BCBA or the diagnosing clinician, and offer to pass the question on.Correct
  2. B.Give her honest impression based on the sessions so far.
  3. C.Tell the parent that RBTs are not allowed to speak with families about assessments.
  4. D.Share the raw assessment scores and let the parent interpret them.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Interpreting assessment results and speaking to diagnosis or severity is outside the RBT scope of practice. Redirecting the question to the supervisor, warmly and without deflecting the parent, is the correct action.

B is wrong because an impression about diagnostic severity is a clinical interpretation an RBT is not qualified or authorised to give. C is wrong because it is false and needlessly cold — RBTs communicate with families constantly, just within their scope. D is wrong because handing over raw scores pushes the interpretation onto the parent and can cause real harm.

Question 9

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2medium

An RBT conducts a paired-stimulus preference assessment with four items. How many pairings are required for each item to be presented with every other item once?

  1. A.4
  2. B.8
  3. C.6Correct
  4. D.12

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Each item must appear opposite every other item exactly once. With four items that is 4 × 3 ÷ 2 = 6 unique pairs.

A is wrong because 4 is the number of items, not the number of pairings. B is wrong because 8 does not correspond to any standard pairing calculation for four items. D is wrong because 12 counts each pair twice — that is 4 × 3 without dividing by two, which would present AB and BA as separate trials.

Question 10

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.5hard

An RBT notices her client works much harder for juice at the end of a long session than at the beginning. Which concept best explains this?

  1. A.Deprivation has acted as an establishing operation, increasing the value of juice.Correct
  2. B.The juice has become a conditioned reinforcer.
  3. C.The client has generalized his responding.
  4. D.The reinforcement schedule has thinned.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Going without juice for the length of the session is deprivation, an establishing operation that momentarily raises the value of juice as a reinforcer and increases behavior that has produced it.

B is wrong because juice is an unconditioned reinforcer, and in any case conditioning would not explain a within-session change in effectiveness. C is wrong because generalization concerns responding spreading to new stimuli or settings, not changes in motivation. D is wrong because schedule thinning describes requiring more responses per reinforcer, which is a procedural change nobody made here.

Question 11

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4medium

Which of these is a limitation of descriptive (ABC) assessment compared with a functional analysis?

  1. A.It cannot be conducted in the natural environment.
  2. B.It requires the behavior to be dangerous.
  3. C.It shows correlation between events and behavior but does not demonstrate cause.Correct
  4. D.It can only be conducted by a BCBA.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Descriptive assessment observes what naturally co-occurs with the behavior. Because nothing is manipulated, it can suggest a likely function but cannot establish that a consequence is actually maintaining the behavior.

A is wrong because the natural environment is precisely where ABC data are collected — that is its advantage. B is wrong because descriptive assessment is used across behaviors of every severity. D is wrong because RBTs routinely collect ABC data under supervision; it is the interpretation that belongs to the BCBA.

Question 12

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.3easy

An RBT is asked to assist with a curriculum-based assessment. What does her role most likely involve?

  1. A.Selecting which assessment instrument to use.
  2. B.Presenting items and recording responses exactly as the supervisor has specified.Correct
  3. C.Scoring the assessment and writing the summary report.
  4. D.Determining which goals should be written from the results.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Assisting means administering the portions the supervisor assigns and recording responses faithfully. The RBT contributes accurate data; the supervisor does everything that requires clinical judgement.

A is wrong because instrument selection is a clinical decision made by the BCBA. C is wrong because interpreting results and authoring the report are supervisor responsibilities. D is wrong because goal selection follows from interpretation of the assessment, which is again outside the RBT role.

Question 13

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2medium

An RBT completes an MSWO and identifies a highly preferred item. What can she conclude?

  1. A.The item will definitely function as a reinforcer in the next session.
  2. B.The item is a conditioned reinforcer.
  3. C.The item is likely to function as a reinforcer, but this must be confirmed by its effect on behavior.Correct
  4. D.The client's preference for the item will be stable for at least a month.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. A preference assessment identifies likely reinforcers. Something is only a reinforcer if delivering it contingently actually increases the behavior it follows — the data determine that, not the assessment.

A is wrong because "definitely" overstates it; motivating operations and satiation can undo a preference within minutes. B is wrong because the assessment says nothing about whether the item's value was learned or unlearned. D is wrong because preferences shift, which is why assessments are repeated frequently, often before each session.

Question 14

B. Behavior AssessmentTask D.2hard

Devon engages in hand-mouthing most often when he is alone in his room with no toys and no one present. This pattern most strongly suggests which function?

  1. A.Attention
  2. B.Escape
  3. C.Tangible
  4. D.Automatic reinforcementCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Behavior that persists when no one is available to deliver a consequence is most likely producing its own reinforcement — the sensory outcome of the behavior itself maintains it.

A is wrong because nobody is present to provide attention, so attention cannot be the maintaining consequence. B is wrong because no demands are being placed, so there is nothing to escape. C is wrong because no tangible items are available to be accessed. The defining feature of the scenario is precisely the absence of any social consequence.

Question 15

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4medium

An RBT collecting ABC data writes: "Antecedent: client was in a bad mood." What is the problem with this entry?

  1. A.It is too detailed for an ABC form.
  2. B.Antecedents should describe the consequence.
  3. C."Bad mood" is an inference rather than an observable environmental event.Correct
  4. D.Mood should be recorded in the behavior column instead.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The antecedent column records what actually happened in the environment immediately before the behavior — an instruction delivered, an item removed, a peer approaching. "Bad mood" is an interpretation that another observer could not verify.

A is wrong because the entry is vague rather than overly detailed. B is wrong because the antecedent and consequence columns are distinct by design. D is wrong because moving an unobservable inference to a different column does not make it observable; the fix is to describe what was seen.

Question 16

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2easy

During a free-operant preference assessment, what does the RBT record?

  1. A.Which item the client selects first from a pair.
  2. B.Which items the client refuses when offered.
  3. C.How many trials it takes for the client to reach the item.
  4. D.How long the client engages with each freely available item.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. In a free-operant assessment the client has open access to an array and the RBT records duration of engagement with each item. Longer engagement suggests higher preference.

A is wrong because first selection from a pair describes the paired-stimulus format. C is wrong because trials-to-criterion is a teaching measure, not a preference measure. B is wrong because free-operant does not involve offering items one at a time, so refusal is not the unit being recorded.

Question 17

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.1medium

Midway through an assessment session, an RBT believes one of the assessment items is unfair because the client has never been taught the skill. What should she do?

  1. A.Skip the item and mark it as not applicable.
  2. B.Administer the item as written and report her observation to the supervisor.Correct
  3. C.Prompt the client so he can demonstrate the skill.
  4. D.Substitute a similar item the client has been taught.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Assessments are administered as designed so results are comparable and interpretable. The RBT's observation is genuinely useful — she reports it, and the supervisor decides what it means.

A is wrong because skipping items without authorisation creates a gap the supervisor cannot interpret. C is wrong because prompting during an assessment measures prompted performance instead of independent skill, which invalidates the item. D is wrong because substituting items changes what the assessment measures and is a clinical decision outside the RBT role.

Question 18

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.5hard

Which of the following is the clearest example of a motivating operation affecting behavior during a session?

  1. A.A client responds correctly when shown a red card but not a blue card.
  2. B.A client stops responding when reinforcement is withheld.
  3. C.A client who skipped breakfast works hard for crackers all morning.Correct
  4. D.A client performs a skill with a new therapist for the first time.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Skipping breakfast is food deprivation — an establishing operation that raises the momentary value of crackers and increases behavior that produces them. That is the definition of an MO in action.

A is wrong because differential responding to red versus blue is stimulus control from discrimination training. B is wrong because responding dropping when reinforcement stops is extinction, a consequence-based effect. D is wrong because performing across a new therapist is generalization. Only B involves a change in how valuable a consequence is.

Question 19

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4medium

An RBT is asked to record ABC data on aggression, but aggression occurs only about once a week. What is the practical limitation of ABC data here?

  1. A.ABC data cannot be used for aggression.
  2. B.Low-frequency behavior yields few observations, so patterns may take a long time to emerge.Correct
  3. C.ABC data require the behavior to occur at least ten times per session.
  4. D.Aggression must always be assessed with a functional analysis instead.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Descriptive assessment depends on catching the behavior as it happens. When the behavior is rare, the RBT may observe for weeks before enough instances accumulate to suggest a pattern.

A is wrong because ABC data are routinely collected on aggression. C is wrong because there is no such fixed threshold. D is wrong because the choice of assessment method is the supervisor's decision and depends on many factors; a functional analysis of dangerous behavior carries its own risks and requirements.

Question 20

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.2medium

An RBT is running an MSWO and the client reaches for two items at once. What is the best response?

  1. A.Record both items as selected.
  2. B.Block the second reach, re-present the array, and record the single item selected.Correct
  3. C.Pick one at random and record it.
  4. D.End the assessment and report that it could not be completed.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. MSWO requires one selection per trial to produce a valid ranking. Blocking the extra reach and re-presenting keeps the procedure intact and yields a scorable trial.

A is wrong because two simultaneous selections break the ranking logic the procedure depends on. C is wrong because recording a choice the client did not make substitutes the RBT's guess for data. D is wrong because a single ambiguous trial is a routine, easily corrected event, not a reason to abandon the assessment.

Question 21

B. Behavior AssessmentTask D.2hard

An RBT observes that her client screams when a peer takes his tablet, and the peer then returns it. During work tasks with no tablet present, screaming does not occur. What is the most likely function?

  1. A.Access to tangiblesCorrect
  2. B.Escape
  3. C.Attention
  4. D.Automatic reinforcement

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The behavior occurs specifically when a preferred item is removed and reliably results in the item being returned. Access to the tangible is the maintaining consequence.

B is wrong because the screaming does not occur during work demands, which is the opposite of what an escape function would predict. C is wrong because although a peer is involved, the consistent outcome is return of the tablet rather than social attention. D is wrong because the behavior depends entirely on what the peer does next, so it is socially mediated rather than automatically reinforced.

Question 22

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.1easy

Which statement best describes the RBT's role in behavior assessment?

  1. A.The RBT designs the assessment and interprets the findings.
  2. B.The RBT determines the function of behavior from the data she collects.
  3. C.The RBT collects assessment data as directed and reports it accurately to the supervisor.Correct
  4. D.The RBT decides when enough data have been gathered to stop the assessment.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The RBT's contribution to assessment is accurate, faithful data collection under the supervisor's direction. That contribution is essential, but it stops short of interpretation.

A is wrong because designing and interpreting assessments requires the analytic training a BCBA has. B is wrong because determining function is exactly the interpretive step reserved for the supervisor. D is wrong because deciding the assessment is complete is a clinical judgement based on interpreting the data so far.

Question 23

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.5medium

A supervisor tells an RBT to run a preference assessment immediately before each session rather than once a month. What is the strongest rationale?

  1. A.It gives the client more choice-making opportunities.
  2. B.Monthly assessments are prohibited by the BACB.
  3. C.Motivating operations change quickly, so what is reinforcing today may not be reinforcing tomorrow.Correct
  4. D.It reduces the amount of data the RBT must collect.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Reinforcer value is momentary. A client who is satiated on an item, or newly deprived of another, will respond very differently — so a fresh assessment keeps teaching sessions effective.

A is wrong because although choice is a genuine benefit, it is not the reason the assessment's timing matters. B is wrong because the BACB sets no such rule; assessment frequency is a clinical decision. D is wrong because running assessments more often increases the data the RBT collects, not decreases it.

Question 24

B. Behavior AssessmentTask B.4medium

An RBT is assisting with a functional analysis and notices the client's self-injury is escalating during the demand condition. What should she do?

  1. A.Follow the termination criteria specified in the protocol and alert the supervising BCBA.Correct
  2. B.Continue the condition to completion so the data are valid.
  3. C.Switch to the play condition on her own judgement.
  4. D.Stop all data collection and end the session.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Functional analysis protocols include predefined safety and termination criteria precisely because behavior can escalate. Following them and alerting the BCBA is both the safe and the procedurally correct action.

B is wrong because client safety always outranks data integrity; no analysis is worth an injury. C is wrong because changing conditions on her own initiative is a clinical decision outside her role, and it contaminates the analysis. D is wrong because it abandons the protocol rather than following the escalation procedure the protocol already specifies.

C. Behavior Acquisition

Formerly the Skill Acquisition domain

46 questions · ~25% of the real exam (19 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4easy

Which sequence correctly describes the components of a discrete trial?

  1. A.Response, SD, consequence, inter-trial interval
  2. B.SD, consequence, response, prompt
  3. C.Prompt, consequence, SD, response
  4. D.SD, (prompt), response, consequence, inter-trial intervalCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. A discrete trial begins with the discriminative stimulus, may include a prompt, then the client's response, then the programmed consequence, then a brief inter-trial interval that separates one trial from the next.

A is wrong because the response cannot precede the instruction that occasions it. C is wrong because a prompt supports responding to an SD that has not yet been delivered, and a consequence cannot precede the response it follows. B is wrong for the same reason — consequences by definition come after the response.

Question 2

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.8medium

An RBT begins teaching a new skill using full physical guidance, then moves to partial physical, then to a gesture, then to no prompt. Which prompt-fading strategy is she using?

  1. A.Least-to-most prompting
  2. B.Most-to-least promptingCorrect
  3. C.Constant time delay
  4. D.Progressive time delay

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Most-to-least starts with the most intrusive prompt that guarantees a correct response, then systematically reduces intrusiveness. It is typically chosen for brand-new skills because it minimises errors from the start.

A is wrong because least-to-most runs in the opposite direction, beginning with the least intrusive prompt and adding help only after an error. C is wrong because constant time delay inserts a fixed pause before prompting rather than changing prompt type. D is wrong because progressive time delay gradually lengthens that pause; neither delay procedure describes moving through a prompt hierarchy.

Question 3

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.6medium

An RBT teaching handwashing reinforces the client for completing the final step — drying his hands — and provides full assistance on all earlier steps. Once the last step is independent, she works backward to the second-to-last. Which procedure is she using?

  1. A.Forward chaining
  2. B.Total-task chaining
  3. C.Backward chainingCorrect
  4. D.Shaping

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Backward chaining teaches the final step first, so the client always experiences completing the chain and contacting the natural reinforcer immediately.

A is wrong because forward chaining teaches step one first and adds steps in order. B is wrong because total-task chaining has the client attempt every step in every session with prompting as needed. D is wrong because shaping reinforces successive approximations toward a single behavior rather than teaching a sequence of distinct steps.

Question 4

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.6easy

What is a task analysis?

  1. A.A record of how long each task takes the client to complete.
  2. B.Breaking a complex skill into its individual teachable steps.Correct
  3. C.An analysis of which tasks the client prefers.
  4. D.A measure of how many tasks the client completed independently.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. A task analysis breaks a multi-step skill — brushing teeth, making a sandwich — into a sequence of discrete, observable steps that can each be taught and measured.

A is wrong because that is a duration measure, not a breakdown of the skill. C is wrong because task preference is what a preference assessment addresses. D is wrong because a count of independent completions is data produced from a task analysis, not the task analysis itself.

Question 5

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.9hard

An RBT wants to teach a non-vocal client to say "ball". She first reinforces any vocalization, then only sounds beginning with "b", then only "ba", then only "ball". Which procedure is this?

  1. A.Chaining
  2. B.Fading
  3. C.ShapingCorrect
  4. D.Discrimination training

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Shaping is differential reinforcement of successive approximations: reinforcement is delivered for responses progressively closer to the target, and earlier approximations stop being reinforced.

A is wrong because chaining links separate behaviors into a sequence; "ball" is one response, not a chain. B is wrong because fading gradually changes a stimulus or prompt, whereas here the response requirement is what changes. D is wrong because discrimination training establishes responding under one stimulus and not another, which is not what is happening.

Question 6

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3medium

A client receives a token every third correct response. Which schedule of reinforcement is in place?

  1. A.FI 3
  2. B.VR 3
  3. C.FR 3Correct
  4. D.VI 3

Why this is the answer

C is correct. A fixed-ratio schedule delivers reinforcement after a set number of responses. Every third response means FR 3.

A is wrong because fixed-interval schedules are time-based — FI 3 would reinforce the first response after three minutes have elapsed. B is wrong because variable-ratio reinforces after an average number of responses that varies from one delivery to the next. D is wrong because variable-interval is also time-based, reinforcing the first response after an average amount of time.

Question 7

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3hard

Which reinforcement schedule typically produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction?

  1. A.Fixed ratio
  2. B.Continuous reinforcement
  3. C.Fixed interval
  4. D.Variable ratioCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Variable-ratio schedules reinforce after an unpredictable number of responses, so there is no signal that reinforcement is unavailable. That produces high, steady responding that persists well when reinforcement stops.

A is wrong because fixed-ratio schedules produce a characteristic post-reinforcement pause after each delivery. C is wrong because fixed-interval produces a scalloped pattern — little responding early in the interval, a burst near the end. B is wrong because continuous reinforcement builds new behavior efficiently but extinguishes fastest, since the absence of reinforcement is immediately obvious.

Question 8

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5medium

A client reaches toward a bubble jar on a high shelf. His RBT holds it up and waits; the client says "bubbles", and she immediately opens it. Which teaching approach is this?

  1. A.Naturalistic teaching / incidental teachingCorrect
  2. B.Discrete-trial teaching
  3. C.Backward chaining
  4. D.Discrimination training

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The teaching opportunity arose from the client's own motivation, occurred in the natural flow of activity, and produced the natural reinforcer — the bubbles themselves. That is naturalistic teaching.

B is wrong because discrete-trial teaching is adult-led, uses massed structured trials and typically arbitrary reinforcers. C is wrong because no multi-step chain is being taught. D is wrong because although some discrimination is involved, the defining feature here is capturing the client's motivation in the moment, not teaching responding to one stimulus over another.

Question 9

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4hard

An RBT is running DTT and the client gives an incorrect response. According to most error-correction procedures, what should she do next?

  1. A.Deliver the reinforcer anyway to keep motivation high.
  2. B.Say "no, that's wrong" and move to the next target.
  3. C.End the session and note the error.
  4. D.Implement the error-correction procedure in the plan — typically re-present the SD with a prompt that ensures a correct response.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Error correction re-presents the trial with enough prompting to produce a correct response, so the client practises the correct response rather than rehearsing the error.

A is wrong because reinforcing an incorrect response strengthens exactly what you are trying to weaken. B is wrong because a bare reprimand teaches nothing and leaves the error as the last thing practised. C is wrong because a single error is an ordinary part of teaching, not a reason to stop the session.

Question 10

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.10medium

A client can label colours perfectly with his RBT at the table, but not with his mother at home. What is the most likely issue?

  1. A.The skill was never actually acquired.
  2. B.The skill has not generalized across people and settings.Correct
  3. C.The mother is using the wrong reinforcer.
  4. D.The client is being non-compliant at home.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The skill is under narrow stimulus control — it occurs with one person in one setting. Generalization across people, settings and materials has to be programmed deliberately; it rarely happens by itself.

A is wrong because he demonstrates the skill reliably at the table, so acquisition clearly occurred. C is wrong because reinforcer choice might contribute but does not explain the setting-specific pattern. D is wrong because attributing it to non-compliance is an inference that ignores the more parsimonious and testable explanation.

Question 11

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.10hard

Which strategy most directly promotes generalization of a newly taught skill?

  1. A.Running more trials in the same setting with the same materials.
  2. B.Teaching with multiple exemplars across different people, settings and materials.Correct
  3. C.Increasing the magnitude of the reinforcer.
  4. D.Moving to a continuous reinforcement schedule.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Multiple-exemplar training deliberately varies the stimuli present during teaching, which prevents the response from coming under the control of one narrow set of conditions.

A is wrong because more trials in identical conditions strengthens the skill but narrows stimulus control further, making generalization less likely. C is wrong because a bigger reinforcer affects motivation, not the range of conditions under which the skill occurs. D is wrong because continuous reinforcement is useful for acquisition but reduces maintenance and does not address generalization at all.

Question 12

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3medium

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

  1. A.A client receives a sticker after finishing his work.
  2. B.A client loses screen time after hitting.
  3. C.A client's task demands are removed after he asks for a break, and he asks for breaks more often afterward.Correct
  4. D.A client is told "no" after grabbing a toy.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Something aversive — the demand — is removed contingent on the response, and the response increases in the future. Removal plus an increase in behavior is negative reinforcement.

A is wrong because adding a sticker is positive reinforcement; something is presented, not removed. B is wrong because removing screen time to decrease hitting is negative punishment. D is wrong because adding a reprimand to decrease grabbing is positive punishment. The word "negative" refers to removal, never to something unpleasant.

Question 13

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.7hard

An RBT holds up a red card and says "touch red". She reinforces touching red and does not reinforce touching blue. What is she teaching?

  1. A.Discrimination between the SD and the S-deltaCorrect
  2. B.Response generalization
  3. C.A behavior chain
  4. D.Stimulus fading

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Reinforcing responding in the presence of one stimulus while withholding it in the presence of another establishes differential responding — the red card becomes the SD and the blue card the S-delta.

B is wrong because response generalization describes varied responses to the same stimulus, not differential responding across stimuli. C is wrong because a single touch response is not a chain. D is wrong because stimulus fading gradually alters a stimulus dimension to transfer control; nothing is being gradually altered here.

Question 14

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.1easy

Which of the following would you expect to find in a written skill acquisition plan?

  1. A.The client's insurance authorisation number.
  2. B.The supervisor's monthly supervision log.
  3. C.A list of the client's known allergies only.
  4. D.The operational definition of the target skill, the teaching procedure, prompting and fading, reinforcement, and mastery criteria.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. A skill acquisition plan must tell any qualified RBT exactly what to teach, how to teach it, how to prompt and fade, what to reinforce and when the skill counts as mastered.

A is wrong because billing information is administrative and belongs elsewhere in the record. C is wrong because although medical information matters for safety, allergies alone do not tell you how to teach a skill. B is wrong because supervision logs document staff oversight, not client programming.

Question 15

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.8hard

A client has begun waiting for his RBT's gestural prompt before responding, even on targets he previously performed independently. What has most likely happened?

  1. A.Prompt dependence has developed because prompts were not faded systematically.Correct
  2. B.The client has become satiated on the reinforcer.
  3. C.The skill has generalized.
  4. D.The client is in an extinction burst.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. When prompts are delivered reliably and not faded, the prompt itself becomes the discriminative stimulus. The client learns that waiting produces help, so independent responding drops away.

B is wrong because satiation would reduce responding generally, not produce this specific pattern of waiting for a prompt. C is wrong because generalization means the skill spreads to new conditions, which is the opposite of what is described. D is wrong because an extinction burst is a temporary increase in behavior when reinforcement is withheld — nothing is being withheld here.

Question 16

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5medium

Which is the clearest example of a mand?

  1. A.A client says "cookie" when he wants a cookie and one is then given.Correct
  2. B.A client says "truck" when he sees a truck drive past.
  3. C.A client repeats "cookie" after his RBT says "cookie".
  4. D.A client answers "a cookie" when asked "what do you eat?"

Why this is the answer

A is correct. A mand is a request. It is under the control of a motivating operation — wanting the cookie — and is reinforced by receiving the specific thing requested.

B is wrong because naming something present is a tact, controlled by the non-verbal stimulus and reinforced socially. C is wrong because repeating what was just said is an echoic, controlled by a vocal-verbal stimulus with point-to-point correspondence. D is wrong because answering a question without receiving the item is an intraverbal.

Question 17

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5hard

An RBT asks her client "What do you wear on your feet?" and he answers "shoes". No shoes are present. Which verbal operant is this?

  1. A.Mand
  2. B.IntraverbalCorrect
  3. C.Echoic
  4. D.Tact

Why this is the answer

B is correct. An intraverbal is verbal behavior controlled by someone else's verbal behavior, without point-to-point correspondence — conversation, answering questions, filling in blanks. Nothing is present to name and nothing is being requested.

A is wrong because he is not asking for anything and no motivating operation is driving the response. D is wrong because a tact requires the item or event to be present to be labelled; there are no shoes in view. C is wrong because an echoic repeats the speaker's words, and "shoes" does not match "what do you wear on your feet?"

Question 18

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.2easy

Before a session begins, what is the RBT's most important preparation step for a skill acquisition program?

  1. A.Reviewing the client's diagnostic history.
  2. B.Deciding which targets to work on today.
  3. C.Emailing the family a summary of last session.
  4. D.Gathering the materials, datasheets and identified reinforcers the plan specifies.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Preparing materials, datasheets and reinforcers in advance means teaching time is spent teaching rather than searching, and it is what the task explicitly requires.

A is wrong because diagnostic history does not change how a plan is run and is not the RBT's to review at will. C is wrong because family communication is valuable but not session preparation. B is wrong because target selection is a clinical decision made by the supervisor and specified in the plan.

Question 19

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3medium

Which is an example of a conditioned reinforcer?

  1. A.A token exchangeable for tablet timeCorrect
  2. B.Food for a hungry client
  3. C.Water for a thirsty client
  4. D.Sleep after exertion

Why this is the answer

A is correct. A token has no value on its own — it becomes reinforcing through its learned pairing with other reinforcers it can be exchanged for. That learning history is what makes it conditioned.

C is wrong because water is an unconditioned reinforcer; nobody has to learn to value it. B is wrong for the same reason — food's reinforcing value is biological. D is wrong because sleep is likewise unconditioned and requires no learning history to function as a reinforcer.

Question 20

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.6medium

In total-task chaining, how does the RBT run a teaching session?

  1. A.She has the client attempt every step in the chain each session, prompting as needed.Correct
  2. B.She teaches only the first step until it is mastered.
  3. C.She teaches only the last step until it is mastered.
  4. D.She teaches the steps in random order.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Total-task chaining runs the whole sequence every time, with prompting on whichever steps the client cannot yet do independently. It suits learners who can already perform several steps.

B is wrong because teaching step one to mastery first describes forward chaining. C is wrong because starting with the final step describes backward chaining. D is wrong because a chain's steps occur in a fixed functional order — you cannot dry your hands before turning on the tap.

Question 21

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.8hard

An RBT delivers the SD, waits 4 seconds, and if there is no response delivers a model prompt. She uses the same 4-second wait on every trial. Which procedure is she using?

  1. A.Progressive time delay
  2. B.Graduated guidance
  3. C.Most-to-least prompting
  4. D.Constant time delayCorrect

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Constant time delay inserts a fixed interval between the SD and the prompt on every trial, giving the client a consistent window to respond independently before help arrives.

A is wrong because progressive time delay lengthens the interval over successive trials — 1 second, then 2, then 3. C is wrong because most-to-least changes the intrusiveness of the prompt rather than its timing. B is wrong because graduated guidance involves physically shadowing the client and adjusting pressure moment to moment.

Question 22

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4medium

What is the purpose of the inter-trial interval in discrete-trial teaching?

  1. A.To give the client a break from reinforcement.
  2. B.To fade the reinforcement schedule.
  3. C.To allow the RBT to record data on the previous session.
  4. D.To clearly separate one trial from the next.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The brief pause marks the end of one trial and the start of the next, so responses can be attributed to a specific SD and the trials remain genuinely discrete.

A is wrong because the interval is a boundary marker of a couple of seconds, not a reinforcement break. C is wrong because although data recording often happens then, that is a practical convenience rather than the procedural purpose. B is wrong because thinning a schedule is a separate procedure that changes how often reinforcement is delivered.

Question 23

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3hard

A client's plan says to move from FR1 to FR3 to FR5 as responding becomes consistent. What is the purpose of this change?

  1. A.To make the task harder so the client concentrates.
  2. B.To reduce the client's motivation.
  3. C.To thin the schedule so responding maintains under more natural conditions.Correct
  4. D.To create an extinction burst.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Schedule thinning gradually requires more responding per reinforcer, which builds persistence and moves the client toward the leaner reinforcement available in everyday environments.

A is wrong because the goal is durable responding, not difficulty for its own sake. B is wrong because thinning is designed to maintain responding, not reduce motivation — thinning too fast is precisely the error to avoid. D is wrong because an extinction burst is an unwanted side effect of withholding reinforcement entirely, not a goal.

Question 24

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.10medium

A client mastered requesting "water" three months ago but has stopped using it. What has failed?

  1. A.Acquisition
  2. B.Discrimination
  3. C.MaintenanceCorrect
  4. D.Prompting

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Maintenance is the continued performance of a skill after teaching has ended. The skill was acquired and then lost, which is a maintenance failure — usually because reinforcement stopped entirely rather than thinning to a natural level.

A is wrong because acquisition clearly succeeded three months ago. B is wrong because nothing indicates the client is confusing water with another stimulus. D is wrong because prompting concerns how the skill was originally taught, not why it faded afterward.

Question 25

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.8medium

Which of the following is the least intrusive prompt?

  1. A.Full physical guidance
  2. B.Partial physical prompt
  3. C.Gestural promptCorrect
  4. D.Model prompt

Why this is the answer

C is correct. A gestural prompt — pointing or glancing toward the correct item — provides the least assistance and involves no contact and no demonstration, making it the least intrusive of the four.

A is wrong because full physical guidance is the most intrusive prompt available. B is wrong because partial physical still involves touching the client, making it more intrusive than a gesture. D is wrong because a model requires the RBT to demonstrate the whole response, which provides more information than a gesture.

Question 26

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.1medium

A skill acquisition plan states the mastery criterion as "80% or higher across three consecutive sessions with two different instructors". Why does the criterion specify two instructors?

  1. A.To reduce the RBT's workload.
  2. B.To build generalization across people into the mastery standard itself.Correct
  3. C.To satisfy supervision requirements.
  4. D.To make the criterion harder to reach.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Requiring performance with more than one instructor means the skill cannot be counted as mastered while it works with only one person. Generalization is written into the definition of mastery rather than left to chance.

A is wrong because involving a second instructor increases coordination work, not reduces it. C is wrong because supervision requirements govern oversight of the RBT, not mastery criteria for a client's skill. D is wrong because the point is durability across conditions, not difficulty.

Question 27

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4hard

An RBT notices that her client responds correctly whenever she looks at the correct card before delivering the SD. What is happening?

  1. A.The client has mastered the discrimination.
  2. B.An unintended prompt is controlling responding, so the skill is not yet independent.Correct
  3. C.The client is generalizing.
  4. D.The reinforcement schedule is too lean.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The RBT's gaze is functioning as an inadvertent prompt. The client is responding to her eyes rather than to the SD, so the data overstate independent performance.

A is wrong because true mastery requires responding under the SD alone; remove the gaze and responding would likely collapse. C is wrong because generalization means performing across new conditions, not depending on a subtle cue. D is wrong because schedule density is unrelated to which stimulus is controlling the response.

Question 28

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.9medium

Which situation calls for shaping rather than prompting?

  1. A.The client cannot yet perform any part of the target response, so approximations must be reinforced.Correct
  2. B.The client can perform the response but does not do so without help.
  3. C.The client performs the response only in one setting.
  4. D.The client performs the response too quickly.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Shaping is the procedure of choice when the terminal behavior is not yet in the client's repertoire at all — you reinforce whatever rough approximation exists and gradually raise the requirement.

B is wrong because a response the client can already perform calls for prompting and prompt fading, not shaping. C is wrong because a setting-limited skill is a generalization problem. D is wrong because response speed is addressed by changing the reinforcement criterion for latency or fluency, not by shaping a new topography.

Question 29

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.7medium

In discrimination training, what is an S-delta (S△)?

  1. A.A stimulus in the presence of which responding has not been reinforced.Correct
  2. B.A stimulus in the presence of which responding has been reinforced.
  3. C.A prompt delivered after an error.
  4. D.The reinforcer delivered at the end of a chain.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. An S-delta signals that reinforcement is not available for the response. Over time the client responds less in its presence, which is one half of a discrimination.

B is wrong because that describes the SD, the discriminative stimulus. C is wrong because prompts are supplementary cues used to occasion correct responding, not a stimulus class defined by reinforcement history. D is wrong because the reinforcer is a consequence, whereas both SD and S-delta are antecedents.

Question 30

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5medium

Which is the strongest advantage of naturalistic teaching over discrete-trial teaching?

  1. A.Skills are taught in the context where they are used, which supports generalization.Correct
  2. B.It produces more trials per minute.
  3. C.It requires no data collection.
  4. D.It does not require reinforcement.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Because teaching happens inside the natural activity with natural reinforcers, the conditions during teaching resemble the conditions where the skill must eventually occur — which makes generalization far more likely.

B is wrong because DTT produces many more trials per minute; that density is DTT's advantage. C is wrong because data are collected in every teaching format. D is wrong because naturalistic teaching very much uses reinforcement — it simply uses the natural consequence rather than an arbitrary one.

Question 31

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3hard

An RBT delivers praise after every correct response for a newly introduced skill. Her supervisor says this is appropriate for now but will change. Why is continuous reinforcement appropriate during acquisition?

  1. A.It produces the greatest resistance to extinction.
  2. B.It prevents satiation.
  3. C.It most closely resembles the natural environment.
  4. D.It builds the new behavior most rapidly by reinforcing every instance.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Reinforcing every correct response makes the contingency unmistakable, which is why continuous reinforcement produces the fastest acquisition of a brand-new skill.

A is wrong because continuous reinforcement produces the least resistance to extinction — that is why the schedule is later thinned. C is wrong because natural environments reinforce intermittently and unpredictably. B is wrong because reinforcing every response makes satiation more likely, not less, especially with edible reinforcers.

Question 32

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.6hard

An RBT is teaching tooth-brushing using forward chaining. The client completes step 1 independently but needs full assistance from step 2 onward. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Require the client to complete all steps independently before reinforcing.
  2. B.Stop after step 1 so the client is not overwhelmed.
  3. C.Switch to backward chaining.
  4. D.Reinforce step 1 and provide the assistance needed for the remaining steps, as the plan specifies.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. In forward chaining, the step currently being taught is reinforced when performed to criterion, and the rest of the chain is completed with assistance so the client still experiences the whole sequence and its natural outcome.

B is wrong because stopping mid-chain leaves the teeth half-brushed and breaks the functional sequence. C is wrong because switching procedures is a clinical decision for the supervisor, not the RBT. A is wrong because requiring full independence before any reinforcement means the client is never reinforced, which is the failure chaining exists to prevent.

Question 33

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.8medium

What is the goal of stimulus control transfer?

  1. A.To move the client from one setting to another.
  2. B.To transfer the client from one instructor to another.
  3. C.To move responding from the prompt to the natural discriminative stimulus.Correct
  4. D.To change the reinforcer from edible to social.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Prompts are temporary supports. Transfer of stimulus control means the natural SD alone eventually evokes the response, and the prompt is no longer needed.

B is wrong because transferring across instructors is generalization across people. A is wrong because moving across settings is generalization across settings. D is wrong because changing reinforcer type is reinforcer fading or pairing — a consequence-side change, whereas stimulus control concerns antecedents.

Question 34

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4easy

During DTT, how should an RBT deliver the SD?

  1. A.Repeat it several times until the client responds.
  2. B.Deliver it while the client is engaged with another activity.
  3. C.Deliver it once, clearly, and wait the specified response interval.Correct
  4. D.Vary the wording on each trial to promote generalization.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. A single, clear instruction followed by the programmed wait gives the client a defined opportunity to respond and keeps the trial discrete and scorable.

A is wrong because repeating the SD teaches the client to wait for the second or third delivery before responding. B is wrong because attending is a prerequisite; an SD delivered to a client who is not attending is not a valid trial. D is wrong because varying wording within acquisition trials introduces uncontrolled variability — generalization is programmed deliberately once the skill is established.

Question 35

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3medium

How can an RBT tell that an item is functioning as a reinforcer?

  1. A.The client selects it during a preference assessment.
  2. B.The behavior it follows increases in the future.Correct
  3. C.The client smiles when he receives it.
  4. D.It appears at the top of the client's preference hierarchy.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Reinforcement is defined by its effect on behavior. If delivering the item contingently does not increase the behavior it follows, it is not functioning as a reinforcer regardless of how much the client seems to like it.

A and D are wrong because preference assessments identify likely reinforcers; the effect on behavior still has to be verified. C is wrong because emotional reactions are not the criterion — many clients show little visible reaction to items that strongly reinforce their behavior.

Question 36

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5hard

An RBT wants to increase mand opportunities during free play. Which arrangement is most likely to work?

  1. A.Placing a preferred item in view but out of reach.Correct
  2. B.Placing all preferred items within the client's easy reach.
  3. C.Removing all preferred items from the room.
  4. D.Telling the client to ask for what he wants.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Putting a desired item in sight but out of reach creates a motivating operation — the client wants it and cannot get it alone — which is exactly the condition under which a mand is likely to occur.

B is wrong because free access removes any need to request. C is wrong because with nothing desirable present there is no motivation to mand at all. D is wrong because instructing the client to ask makes the response a prompted compliance rather than a mand under motivational control.

Question 37

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.10medium

Which is an example of response generalization?

  1. A.A client greets his RBT and also greets his teacher.
  2. B.A client performs a skill weeks after teaching ends.
  3. C.A client labels a dog in a book and also at the park.
  4. D.A client who was taught to say "hello" also begins saying "hi" and waving.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Response generalization is the emergence of different but functionally equivalent responses — "hi" and waving were never taught, yet they serve the same purpose as the taught greeting.

A is wrong because greeting a new person is stimulus generalization across people. C is wrong because labelling across contexts is stimulus generalization across settings and materials. B is wrong because performance over time is maintenance, not generalization.

Question 38

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.1medium

An RBT thinks a client's skill acquisition plan would work better with a different prompting strategy. What should she do?

  1. A.Try the alternative for one session and compare the data.
  2. B.Change the plan and note the change in her session note.
  3. C.Continue implementing the plan as written and raise her suggestion with her supervisor.Correct
  4. D.Ask the client's parent which approach they prefer.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Implementing the plan with fidelity is the RBT's core responsibility, and her clinical observation is genuinely valuable — delivered to the supervisor, who is authorised to modify the plan.

A is wrong because even a one-session trial is an unauthorised protocol change that contaminates the data. B is wrong because documenting an unauthorised change does not make it authorised. D is wrong because parents are essential partners but do not authorise changes to clinical protocols; that is the supervisor's role.

Question 39

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.9hard

An RBT is shaping a client's tolerance for sitting at the table, currently at 20 seconds. She decides to require 3 minutes before delivering reinforcement. What is the likely result?

  1. A.The client will quickly reach the 3-minute goal.
  2. B.The behavior will come under stimulus control.
  3. C.The client will generalize sitting to other settings.
  4. D.Responding will likely break down because the criterion was raised too far, too fast.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Shaping works by raising the criterion in increments the client can actually meet. Jumping from 20 seconds to 3 minutes means reinforcement becomes unavailable, and the behavior deteriorates rather than improving.

A is wrong because there is no mechanism by which an unreachable requirement produces the target performance. C is wrong because generalization is unrelated to how steeply a shaping criterion is raised. B is wrong because stimulus control concerns which antecedent evokes the response, not the size of the shaping step.

Question 40

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.7medium

A client consistently selects the correct picture when it is larger than the distractor, but errs when both are the same size. What does this indicate?

  1. A.The client has mastered the discrimination.
  2. B.The client is generalizing across stimuli.
  3. C.The client needs a more powerful reinforcer.
  4. D.Size, not the target feature, is controlling responding.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The client is responding to an irrelevant dimension. Once size is equalised, the discrimination collapses — showing the target feature was never controlling the response.

A is wrong because mastery would mean correct responding regardless of size. C is wrong because a stronger reinforcer increases motivation but cannot teach which feature to attend to. B is wrong because generalization would mean responding correctly to new examples, whereas here responding fails as soon as an irrelevant cue is removed.

Question 41

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.3medium

In a token economy, what makes the tokens effective?

  1. A.Tokens are naturally reinforcing to most clients.
  2. B.Tokens are easier to deliver than praise.
  3. C.Tokens can be taken away when the client misbehaves.
  4. D.Tokens are paired with and exchangeable for established back-up reinforcers.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. A token has no intrinsic value. Its reinforcing power comes entirely from being reliably exchangeable for back-up reinforcers the client actually wants — which is what makes it a conditioned reinforcer.

A is wrong because nothing about a plastic chip is naturally reinforcing. C is wrong because response cost is a separate procedure that must be specified in the plan, not the source of a token's value. B is wrong because ease of delivery is a practical convenience, not the mechanism of effectiveness.

Question 42

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.4hard

An RBT records a client's response as independent when she had provided a partial physical prompt. What is the consequence of this error?

  1. A.Nothing significant, as long as the client eventually masters the skill.
  2. B.The client will develop prompt dependence.
  3. C.The data overstate independence, and the skill may be moved to maintenance before it is truly acquired.Correct
  4. D.The reinforcement schedule will be too dense.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Mastery decisions are made from the prompt-level data. Recording prompted responses as independent inflates the numbers and can retire a skill from active teaching while the client still cannot perform it alone.

A is wrong because the error may prevent mastery from ever occurring, and it corrupts the record either way. B is wrong because prompt dependence is caused by how prompts are faded, not by how they are recorded. D is wrong because scoring errors do not change the schedule specified in the plan.

Question 43

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.10medium

Which is the best way to promote maintenance of a mastered skill?

  1. A.Stop reinforcing the skill entirely once mastery is reached.
  2. B.Return to continuous reinforcement.
  3. C.Continue to probe the skill periodically and reinforce intermittently.Correct
  4. D.Teach the skill again from the beginning each month.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Periodic probes catch a skill that is starting to drift, and intermittent reinforcement keeps it worthwhile without requiring the dense schedule used during acquisition.

A is wrong because removing reinforcement entirely is functionally extinction, which is the most common cause of maintenance failure. B is wrong because returning to continuous reinforcement is a step backward and makes the skill less durable. D is wrong because re-teaching from scratch wastes teaching time that could be spent on new targets.

Question 44

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.5medium

A client sees a plane overhead and says "plane!" with no one having asked anything. His RBT says "Yes, a plane!" Which verbal operant occurred?

  1. A.TactCorrect
  2. B.Mand
  3. C.Intraverbal
  4. D.Echoic

Why this is the answer

A is correct. A tact is labelling something present in the environment, under the control of that non-verbal stimulus, and it is typically reinforced socially — here by the RBT's acknowledgement.

B is wrong because the client is not requesting the plane and receives no item. C is wrong because an intraverbal is occasioned by someone else's verbal behavior, and nobody spoke first. D is wrong because an echoic repeats what a speaker just said, and there was no prior vocal model.

Question 45

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.2easy

An RBT arrives to find that the reinforcer specified in the plan is unavailable. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. A.Use the next item on the client's most recent preference hierarchy and inform the supervisor.Correct
  2. B.Run the session with no reinforcement.
  3. C.Cancel the session.
  4. D.Ask the client to choose any item from the clinic.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The preference hierarchy exists exactly for this situation. Using the next identified item keeps teaching effective, and telling the supervisor keeps the record accurate and lets her adjust if needed.

B is wrong because teaching without reinforcement removes the mechanism that makes acquisition work. C is wrong because cancelling costs the client a session over a solvable problem. D is wrong because a free choice from anywhere in the clinic bypasses the assessed hierarchy and may introduce items that are not approved.

Question 46

C. Behavior AcquisitionTask C.7hard

An RBT is running a receptive identification program with three targets. She notices the correct card is always placed on the client's left. What should she change?

  1. A.Rotate the position of the cards between trials so position cannot control responding.Correct
  2. B.Nothing — consistent placement helps the client learn.
  3. C.Use only one card at a time.
  4. D.Increase the reinforcement magnitude.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. If the correct card is always in the same place, the client can be reinforced for a position response without ever attending to the stimulus. Randomising placement forces the discrimination onto the intended feature.

B is wrong because consistent placement is exactly what creates the position bias. C is wrong because a single card removes the discrimination entirely — with nothing to choose between, correct responding is meaningless. D is wrong because a bigger reinforcer strengthens whatever response is occurring, including the position response.

D. Behavior Reduction

36 questions · ~19% of the real exam (14 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5medium

An RBT begins an extinction procedure for attention-maintained screaming. During the next two sessions the screaming becomes louder and more frequent. What is most likely occurring?

  1. A.An extinction burst, which is a common initial effect of extinction.Correct
  2. B.The procedure has failed and should be discontinued.
  3. C.Spontaneous recovery.
  4. D.The behavior has changed function.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. An extinction burst is a temporary increase in the frequency, intensity or duration of behavior immediately after the maintaining reinforcer is withheld. It is expected, and it typically subsides if the procedure is applied consistently.

B is wrong because stopping during a burst reinforces the escalated behavior at its worst, making it far harder to treat later. C is wrong because spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a behavior after it has already decreased, not the initial spike. D is wrong because nothing indicates a new consequence is now maintaining the behavior.

Question 2

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4hard

A client's plan specifies DRO with a 5-minute interval for hand-biting. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Deliver reinforcement every 5 minutes regardless of behavior.
  2. B.Deliver reinforcement each time the client uses his hands appropriately.
  3. C.Deliver reinforcement at the end of each 5-minute interval only if hand-biting did not occur during it.Correct
  4. D.Deliver reinforcement when hand-biting occurs fewer than five times.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. DRO — differential reinforcement of other behavior — reinforces the absence of the target behavior for a specified period. If hand-biting occurs, the interval typically resets and no reinforcer is delivered.

A is wrong because delivering reinforcement regardless of behavior is non-contingent reinforcement, a different procedure. B is wrong because reinforcing a specific appropriate alternative is DRA. D is wrong because reinforcing a reduced rate is DRL, which tolerates some occurrences rather than requiring none.

Question 3

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4medium

A client who screams for attention is taught to tap his RBT's shoulder instead, and tapping is reinforced with attention while screaming is not. Which procedure is this?

  1. A.DRACorrect
  2. B.DRO
  3. C.DRL
  4. D.Response cost

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Differential reinforcement of alternative behavior reinforces a specific replacement response that produces the same reinforcer as the problem behavior — attention, in this case — while the problem behavior no longer produces it.

B is wrong because DRO reinforces the absence of behavior rather than a specific alternative. C is wrong because DRL reinforces a lower rate of the problem behavior itself. D is wrong because response cost involves removing a reinforcer contingent on the problem behavior, which is not described here.

Question 4

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4hard

Which procedure reinforces a behavior that is physically incompatible with the problem behavior?

  1. A.DRO
  2. B.DRA
  3. C.DRICorrect
  4. D.DRL

Why this is the answer

C is correct. DRI — differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior — reinforces a response that cannot physically co-occur with the problem behavior, such as reinforcing hands-in-lap to reduce hand-flapping.

A is wrong because DRO reinforces any period without the behavior, with no requirement that anything specific occur. B is wrong because DRA's alternative merely serves the same function; it need not be physically incompatible. D is wrong because DRL reinforces a reduced rate of the target behavior itself rather than a competing response.

Question 5

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3medium

An RBT gives her client attention every two minutes on a timer, regardless of what he is doing, to reduce attention-maintained disruption. Which procedure is this?

  1. A.Extinction
  2. B.DRO
  3. C.Non-contingent reinforcement (NCR)Correct
  4. D.High-probability request sequence

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Non-contingent reinforcement delivers the maintaining reinforcer on a fixed time schedule regardless of behavior. This abolishes the motivating operation for the problem behavior — the client no longer has to act out to get attention.

B is wrong because DRO requires the absence of the behavior before delivering the reinforcer; NCR has no such contingency. A is wrong because extinction withholds the reinforcer rather than providing it freely. D is wrong because a high-p sequence involves presenting easy requests before a difficult one.

Question 6

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3hard

Before asking her client to do a difficult writing task, an RBT asks him to clap, give a high five, and touch his nose — all easy requests he complies with readily. She then delivers the writing instruction. What is this called?

  1. A.High-probability request sequence (behavioral momentum)Correct
  2. B.Errorless learning
  3. C.Shaping
  4. D.Response cost

Why this is the answer

A is correct. A high-probability request sequence delivers several instructions with a strong compliance history immediately before a low-probability request, increasing the likelihood of compliance with the hard one.

B is wrong because errorless learning uses prompting to prevent errors during skill teaching, not to increase compliance. C is wrong because shaping reinforces successive approximations toward a new response, and clapping is not an approximation of writing. D is wrong because response cost removes a reinforcer following problem behavior, which has not occurred.

Question 7

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5hard

For behavior maintained by escape from demands, what does extinction actually involve?

  1. A.Ignoring the behavior when it occurs.
  2. B.Removing the demand and returning to it later.
  3. C.Continuing to present the demand so that the behavior no longer produces escape.Correct
  4. D.Withholding preferred items until the demand is completed.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Extinction always means withholding the maintaining reinforcer. For escape-maintained behavior, the reinforcer is removal of the demand — so extinction means the demand stays in place and the behavior no longer buys a break.

A is wrong because ignoring is extinction for attention-maintained behavior; ignoring an escape-maintained tantrum while removing the task actually reinforces it. B is wrong because removing the demand delivers exactly the reinforcer being targeted. D is wrong because withholding tangibles addresses a function that is not operating here.

Question 8

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5medium

Two weeks after a behavior was successfully reduced through extinction, it briefly reappears. What is this called?

  1. A.Spontaneous recoveryCorrect
  2. B.Extinction burst
  3. C.Response generalization
  4. D.Satiation

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a previously extinguished behavior after a period without it. If the extinction procedure remains in place, it typically fades again quickly.

B is wrong because an extinction burst occurs immediately after extinction begins, not weeks into a successful reduction. C is wrong because response generalization concerns new forms of a reinforced response, not the return of a reduced one. D is wrong because satiation is a motivational change that reduces reinforcer value, which does not explain a behavior returning.

Question 9

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.1easy

Which of the following belongs in a written behavior reduction plan?

  1. A.The client's educational placement history.
  2. B.The family's preferred appointment times.
  3. C.A list of staff who have worked with the client.
  4. D.An operational definition of the target behavior, its function, antecedent strategies, a replacement behavior and consequence procedures.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. A behavior reduction plan has to tell any RBT what the behavior looks like, what maintains it, what to change beforehand, what to teach instead and how to respond when it occurs.

A is wrong because educational history is background information, not procedural instruction. C is wrong because staffing records are administrative. B is wrong because scheduling preferences are logistical and appear nowhere in a clinical protocol.

Question 10

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.1hard

Why does virtually every behavior reduction plan include a replacement behavior?

  1. A.To satisfy documentation requirements.
  2. B.Because reduction procedures alone are prohibited.
  3. C.To give the RBT something to reinforce during the session.
  4. D.Because the client still has the need the problem behavior served, and must have an appropriate way to meet it.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Problem behavior is doing a job — getting attention, escaping a demand, obtaining an item. Suppressing it without teaching a functional alternative leaves the need unmet, and the behavior usually returns or is replaced by something worse.

A is wrong because it treats a clinical necessity as paperwork. C is wrong because it describes a side benefit rather than the reason. B is wrong because no blanket prohibition exists; the reason is clinical effectiveness and client welfare.

Question 11

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4hard

A client raises his hand 30 times per session, which disrupts the class. His plan reinforces him for raising his hand five or fewer times. Which procedure is this?

  1. A.DRO
  2. B.DRA
  3. C.DRLCorrect
  4. D.DRI

Why this is the answer

C is correct. DRL — differential reinforcement of low rates — reinforces the behavior when it occurs at or below a specified rate. It suits behaviors that are acceptable in moderation but problematic in excess.

A is wrong because DRO would require zero occurrences, and hand-raising is a behavior you want to keep at a lower level rather than eliminate. B is wrong because no alternative response is being taught. D is wrong because no physically incompatible behavior is being reinforced.

Question 12

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3medium

Which of these is an antecedent intervention?

  1. A.Delivering praise after the client completes a task.
  2. B.Withholding attention after the client screams.
  3. C.Removing a token after the client shouts.
  4. D.Offering the client a choice between two writing tasks before work begins.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Offering choice happens before the behavior and changes the conditions under which work is presented — that is the defining feature of an antecedent intervention.

A is wrong because praise delivered after a response is a consequence procedure. C is wrong because removing a token following shouting is response cost, also a consequence. B is wrong because withholding attention after screaming is extinction, which by definition operates on what follows the behavior.

Question 13

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.6medium

A client begins throwing chairs and staff safety is at risk. What should the RBT do first?

  1. A.Continue the scheduled program to avoid reinforcing the behavior.
  2. B.Implement the crisis procedure specified in the plan and ensure everyone's safety.Correct
  3. C.Restrain the client until he calms down.
  4. D.Call the parent immediately.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Safety comes first, and the written crisis plan specifies exactly what to do — which typically starts with clearing the area and protecting people rather than continuing programming.

A is wrong because concern about reinforcement never outweighs immediate physical danger. C is wrong because restraint may be prohibited, requires specific training and authorisation, and is never a default first response. D is wrong because calling the parent, while it may follow, does nothing to address the immediate hazard.

Question 14

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5hard

Why is extinction rarely implemented alone?

  1. A.It is too slow to be practical.
  2. B.Used alone it leaves the client without an appropriate way to obtain the reinforcer, and it can produce bursts and emotional responding.Correct
  3. C.It requires a BCBA to be present.
  4. D.It only works with attention-maintained behavior.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Extinction removes access to the reinforcer without providing another route to it. Pairing it with DRA or FCT gives the client an appropriate way to get what they need, which reduces bursts and produces more durable change.

A is wrong because speed is not the central concern; effectiveness and welfare are. C is wrong because RBTs implement extinction routinely under supervision without the BCBA physically present. D is wrong because extinction applies to every function once the maintaining reinforcer is identified.

Question 15

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4medium

A client is taught to hand over a break card instead of screaming to escape work. The card produces a break; screaming no longer does. What is this procedure called?

  1. A.Response cost
  2. B.Functional communication training (FCT)Correct
  3. C.Non-contingent escape
  4. D.Discrimination training

Why this is the answer

B is correct. FCT teaches a communicative response that produces the same reinforcer as the problem behavior — here, escape — while the problem behavior is placed on extinction. It is a specific and very common form of DRA.

A is wrong because nothing is being removed following the behavior. C is wrong because non-contingent escape delivers breaks on a schedule regardless of what the client does. D is wrong because although discrimination is involved, the defining feature is teaching a functional communication response.

Question 16

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.2medium

Two clients both bang their heads. For one it is maintained by attention; for the other by automatic reinforcement. What does this illustrate?

  1. A.Head-banging always has multiple functions.
  2. B.Behaviors that look the same can serve different functions.Correct
  3. C.Function cannot be determined for self-injury.
  4. D.Topography determines function.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Function is about what maintains behavior, not what it looks like. Identical topographies can be maintained by entirely different consequences, which is why interventions must follow assessment rather than appearance.

A is wrong because although behavior can be multiply maintained, the scenario describes two clients with one function each. C is wrong because self-injury is routinely assessed and its function identified. D is wrong because it states the opposite of the point — topography tells you nothing reliable about function.

Question 17

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3hard

A client's problem behavior is maintained by escape from long work sessions. Which antecedent intervention most directly addresses the motivating operation?

  1. A.Shortening work intervals and building in scheduled breaks.Correct
  2. B.Providing a preferred snack at the start of the session.
  3. C.Praising the client for staying seated.
  4. D.Removing tokens when problem behavior occurs.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The motivating operation is the aversiveness of long work. Shortening intervals and scheduling breaks reduces that aversiveness directly, so escape becomes less valuable and the behavior less likely.

B is wrong because a snack addresses food motivation, which is not what maintains this behavior. C is wrong because praise is a consequence procedure, not an antecedent one. D is wrong because response cost is also a consequence, and it does nothing about why the work is aversive.

Question 18

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.1medium

An RBT is asked by a parent to "add a consequence" to the behavior plan because the current one is not working fast enough. How should she respond?

  1. A.Add the consequence the parent suggests, since parents are decision-makers.
  2. B.Explain that plan changes come from the supervising BCBA, and pass the concern on promptly.Correct
  3. C.Tell the parent the plan is working and no change is needed.
  4. D.Try the parent's suggestion for a week and report the results.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Modifying a behavior plan is a clinical decision reserved for the supervisor. Acknowledging the parent's concern and routing it to the BCBA respects both the family and the scope of the RBT role.

A is wrong because parental consent to treatment is not the same as authority to alter a clinical protocol. C is wrong because it dismisses a legitimate concern the supervisor needs to hear. D is wrong because an unauthorised trial is a fidelity breach regardless of how it is reported afterward.

Question 19

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.2easy

Which are the four commonly described functions of behavior?

  1. A.Positive, negative, neutral, mixed
  2. B.Attention, escape, tangible, automaticCorrect
  3. C.Antecedent, behavior, consequence, function
  4. D.Sensory, verbal, motor, social

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Behavior is commonly described as maintained by social attention, escape or avoidance, access to tangibles, or automatic reinforcement produced by the behavior itself.

A is wrong because positive and negative describe whether a stimulus is added or removed, not what maintains behavior. C is wrong because ABC names the three-term contingency, a recording framework rather than a list of functions. D is wrong because those are categories of behavior type, not functions.

Question 20

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4hard

An RBT is running a DRO 3-minute interval. At 2 minutes 40 seconds the target behavior occurs. What should she do?

  1. A.Deliver reinforcement at 3 minutes as scheduled.
  2. B.Reset the interval and withhold reinforcement for this interval.Correct
  3. C.Extend the interval to 6 minutes.
  4. D.Deliver reinforcement immediately to interrupt the behavior.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. DRO reinforces the absence of the behavior across the whole interval. An occurrence means the criterion was not met, so no reinforcer is delivered and the interval restarts.

A is wrong because delivering the reinforcer would follow an occurrence of the very behavior being reduced. C is wrong because doubling the interval is a plan change the RBT is not authorised to make. D is wrong because reinforcing immediately after the behavior directly strengthens it.

Question 21

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.6medium

After a crisis incident, what is the RBT's documentation responsibility?

  1. A.Write a note only if an injury occurred.
  2. B.Wait until the supervisor asks for a report.
  3. C.Complete the incident report as required, describing what happened objectively and promptly.Correct
  4. D.Record it in the regular session note without further reporting.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Incidents require prompt, objective documentation on the form the agency specifies, describing what was observed rather than what the RBT concluded.

A is wrong because reporting requirements are triggered by the incident, not only by injury. B is wrong because waiting to be asked delays reporting and degrades the accuracy of the account. D is wrong because a routine session note does not satisfy incident-reporting requirements, which usually route to different people.

Question 22

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5medium

An RBT implements extinction inconsistently — ignoring the behavior most of the time but occasionally giving in when she is busy. What is the likely effect?

  1. A.The behavior will decrease more gradually but still decrease.
  2. B.The behavior will change function.
  3. C.The behavior will become more resistant to extinction because it is now on an intermittent schedule.Correct
  4. D.There will be no effect either way.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Occasionally giving in places the behavior on an intermittent reinforcement schedule, which produces the most persistent responding of all. Inconsistent extinction makes the problem substantially worse than not starting.

A is wrong because the behavior typically strengthens rather than gradually decreasing. B is wrong because the same reinforcer is still maintaining it; only the schedule has changed. D is wrong because the effect is large and in the wrong direction.

Question 23

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3medium

Which is an example of priming as an antecedent strategy?

  1. A.Timing how long transitions take.
  2. B.Praising the client after a smooth transition.
  3. C.Removing a preferred item after a difficult transition.
  4. D.Reviewing the schedule with the client before a transition.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Priming prepares the client for what is coming before the event occurs, reducing the uncertainty that often occasions problem behavior at transitions.

B is wrong because praise after the transition is a consequence procedure. C is wrong because removing an item following behavior is response cost, also a consequence. A is wrong because timing transitions is measurement, not intervention.

Question 24

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.1hard

An RBT reads a behavior plan that specifies a procedure she has never been trained to implement. What should she do?

  1. A.Implement it as best she can and ask questions afterward.
  2. B.Ask a more experienced RBT to show her during the session.
  3. C.Tell her supervisor she needs training before implementing it.Correct
  4. D.Skip that portion of the plan and implement the rest.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Practising within one's scope of competence means not implementing procedures you have not been trained on. Raising it with the supervisor gets the training arranged and protects the client.

A is wrong because improvising a behavior reduction procedure risks harm and produces useless data. B is wrong because informal peer instruction during a live session is not competency-based training and the peer is not the authorising supervisor. D is wrong because silently omitting part of a plan is a fidelity breach the supervisor cannot see in the data.

Question 25

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4hard

For a DRA procedure to work, what must be true of the alternative behavior?

  1. A.It must be physically incompatible with the problem behavior.
  2. B.It must produce the same reinforcer, and do so at least as easily as the problem behavior does.Correct
  3. C.It must be a vocal response.
  4. D.It must already be in the client's repertoire.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. If the alternative takes more effort or works less reliably than the problem behavior, the client has no reason to use it. Matching the reinforcer and making the alternative efficient is what makes DRA effective.

A is wrong because physical incompatibility is required for DRI, not DRA. C is wrong because alternatives are frequently gestures, cards or device responses. D is wrong because DRA very often involves teaching the alternative from scratch.

Question 26

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.2medium

A client's problem behavior appears to be maintained by more than one consequence in different situations. What is this called?

  1. A.Multiply maintained behaviorCorrect
  2. B.Response generalization
  3. C.Automatic reinforcement
  4. D.Behavioral contrast

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Multiply maintained behavior serves different functions in different contexts — escaping demands at school, gaining attention at home. Effective plans then need distinct procedures for each context.

B is wrong because response generalization concerns varied response forms, not varied maintaining consequences. C is wrong because automatic reinforcement is one specific function, and the scenario involves several. D is wrong because behavioral contrast describes behavior changing in one setting when contingencies change in another.

Question 27

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.6medium

During a crisis, an RBT uses a physical management technique she learned at a previous employer but which is not in her current client's plan. Why is this a problem?

  1. A.The technique is likely ineffective.
  2. B.There is no problem if the crisis was resolved.
  3. C.She should have asked the client's permission first.
  4. D.Crisis procedures must be those authorised in the client's plan and for which the RBT is currently trained and certified.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Restrictive and physical procedures carry real risk and are tightly governed. Only techniques written into this client's plan, for which the RBT holds current training, may be used.

A is wrong because the objection is about authorisation and safety, not effectiveness. C is wrong because consent for restrictive procedures is obtained through the treatment planning process, not asked for mid-crisis. B is wrong because a good outcome does not retroactively authorise an unapproved restrictive procedure.

Question 28

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3medium

Which antecedent strategy is most appropriate for behavior maintained by access to tangibles during transitions away from a preferred activity?

  1. A.Giving a warning and a visual timer before the transition.Correct
  2. B.Ignoring the behavior when it occurs.
  3. C.Removing all preferred items from the environment.
  4. D.Increasing the difficulty of the next task.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. A warning and a visual timer make the transition predictable and signal the end of access in advance, which reduces the abruptness that occasions the behavior. It is an antecedent change addressing the situation directly.

B is wrong because ignoring is a consequence procedure and does not address the transition itself. C is wrong because removing all preferred items is restrictive and harms the client's quality of life. D is wrong because making the next task harder increases aversiveness and would likely worsen the behavior.

Question 29

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5hard

Look at the graph below of Rosa's disruptive behavior across baseline and intervention.

Which feature of the data reflects an extinction burst?

08162432401234567891011SessionsDisruptionsBaselineExtinction
Rosa's disruptions per session, baseline and extinction
  1. A.The flat baseline in sessions 1 to 4.
  2. B.The steady decline in sessions 7 to 11.
  3. C.The sharp increase in sessions 5 and 6 immediately after extinction began.Correct
  4. D.The low point in session 11.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. An extinction burst is the temporary spike in the behavior right after the maintaining reinforcer is withheld. Sessions 5 and 6 jump well above the baseline band before the decline begins — the classic burst pattern.

A is wrong because a stable baseline is the pre-intervention comparison, not an effect of extinction. B is wrong because the decline is the intended therapeutic effect that follows the burst. D is wrong because the final low point shows the procedure worked, not the burst itself.

Question 30

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4medium

Which is the most appropriate replacement behavior for a client whose screaming is maintained by escape from work?

  1. A.Teaching him to ask for a preferred toy.
  2. B.Teaching him to request a break.Correct
  3. C.Teaching him to raise his hand for attention.
  4. D.Teaching him to sit quietly for longer periods.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. A replacement behavior must produce the same reinforcer as the problem behavior. Screaming produces escape, so requesting a break is the functionally matched alternative.

A is wrong because requesting a toy produces a tangible, which is not what maintains the screaming. C is wrong because raising a hand produces attention, again the wrong function. D is wrong because sitting quietly is a goal rather than a replacement — it gives the client no way to communicate his need to escape.

Question 31

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.2hard

An RBT is told a client's aggression is maintained by attention. She responds to each instance with a long explanation about why hitting is unacceptable. Why is this counterproductive?

  1. A.The explanation is too complex for the client.
  2. B.A lengthy verbal response delivers the very attention that maintains the behavior.Correct
  3. C.It takes too much session time.
  4. D.It should be delivered by the supervisor.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. For attention-maintained behavior, any substantial social response — including a reprimand or explanation — functions as the reinforcer. Well-intentioned lecturing strengthens exactly what it is meant to reduce.

A is wrong because complexity is a secondary issue; even a simple explanation would reinforce. C is wrong because time cost is trivial compared with strengthening aggression. D is wrong because who delivers the attention does not change its reinforcing effect.

Question 32

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.3medium

What is the main advantage of antecedent interventions over consequence-based procedures?

  1. A.They are always faster to implement.
  2. B.They can prevent the problem behavior from occurring rather than responding after it does.Correct
  3. C.They do not require data collection.
  4. D.They can be implemented without supervision.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. By changing the conditions that occasion behavior, antecedent strategies reduce the number of occurrences in the first place — which is safer for the client and everyone around them.

A is wrong because implementation speed varies and some antecedent strategies require substantial environmental change. C is wrong because every procedure in a behavior plan requires data. D is wrong because all procedures are implemented under supervision regardless of type.

Question 33

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.5medium

An RBT is running extinction for attention-maintained behavior. A visitor in the room reacts loudly each time the behavior occurs. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Continue the procedure and ignore the visitor's reaction.
  2. B.Quietly inform the visitor of what is needed, or ask her supervisor how to manage the situation.Correct
  3. C.Stop the extinction procedure permanently.
  4. D.Explain the client's behavior plan to the visitor in detail.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The visitor's reaction is delivering the reinforcer the procedure is withholding, so the extinction is not actually in effect. Addressing it discreetly, or escalating to the supervisor, protects the procedure.

A is wrong because ignoring it means the behavior is being intermittently reinforced, which makes it more persistent. C is wrong because a solvable environmental problem does not warrant abandoning the plan. D is wrong because detailing a client's behavior plan to an unauthorised person breaches confidentiality.

Question 34

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.1medium

A behavior plan directs the RBT to deliver a reinforcer for every 10 minutes without the target behavior. In session, the client goes 10 minutes without it but the RBT forgets to deliver the reinforcer. What should she do?

  1. A.Reset the interval and say nothing.
  2. B.Skip it, since the moment has passed.
  3. C.Deliver a larger reinforcer at the end of the session to compensate.
  4. D.Deliver it at the next opportunity and note the missed delivery.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Treatment fidelity is imperfect in practice; the honest response is to resume correct implementation and document the lapse so the supervisor can interpret the data accurately.

B is wrong because silently skipping leaves the supervisor reading data that misrepresent how the procedure was run. C is wrong because an end-of-session bonus is not contingent on the interval and is an unauthorised modification. A is wrong because concealing a fidelity lapse is a documentation problem, not a fix.

Question 35

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.4easy

Which procedure delivers reinforcement when the problem behavior has not occurred for a set period of time?

  1. A.DRA
  2. B.DROCorrect
  3. C.DRI
  4. D.DRL

Why this is the answer

B is correct. DRO — differential reinforcement of other behavior — reinforces the omission of the target behavior across an interval. The client can be doing anything at all, as long as the target behavior did not occur.

A is wrong because DRA requires a specific alternative response to occur. C is wrong because DRI requires a specific incompatible response to occur. D is wrong because DRL reinforces the target behavior at a reduced rate, meaning some occurrences are tolerated.

Question 36

D. Behavior ReductionTask D.6hard

During a crisis, the RBT successfully de-escalates the situation. What should happen afterward?

  1. A.Return to the scheduled program immediately as though nothing occurred.
  2. B.Discuss the incident with other staff to get their opinions.
  3. C.End the session and send the client home.
  4. D.Follow the plan's post-crisis procedures, document the incident, and notify the supervisor.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Crisis plans specify what happens after de-escalation — re-entry steps, documentation and notification. Following them protects the client and gives the supervisor the information needed to adjust the plan.

A is wrong because it skips required documentation and notification. C is wrong because ending the session is only appropriate if the plan specifies it. B is wrong because canvassing colleagues for opinions discloses client information beyond those authorised and delays the required report.

E. Documentation and Reporting

Formerly the Documentation domain

26 questions · ~13% of the real exam (10 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2medium

Which session note entry is written objectively?

  1. A.Client was in a great mood and really enjoyed the session.
  2. B.Client seemed motivated by the new reinforcer.
  3. C.Client completed 8 of 10 trials independently and vocally requested a break twice.Correct
  4. D.Client did well considering how tired he looked.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. It reports countable, observable events — number of trials completed independently and number of vocal requests. Another person reading it can picture exactly what happened.

A is wrong because "great mood" and "enjoyed" are inferences about private states. B is wrong because "seemed motivated" is an interpretation rather than an observation; what was observed was a response rate. D is wrong because it combines a vague judgement with an unverified explanation for it.

Question 2

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.1easy

A client's mother mentions that he started a new medication yesterday. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Note it privately in case it becomes relevant.
  2. B.Ask the mother what the medication is for.
  3. C.Adjust the program to account for possible side effects.
  4. D.Report it to her supervisor, as it is a variable that may affect the client.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Medication changes are a classic variable that can shift behavior and data. Reporting promptly lets the supervisor interpret any change in the graph correctly rather than attributing it to the intervention.

A is wrong because a private note the supervisor never sees defeats the purpose of the reporting requirement. C is wrong because adjusting the program is a clinical decision outside the RBT's role. B is wrong because probing for medical details exceeds what the RBT needs to know and is not her role to investigate.

Question 3

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.3hard

An RBT takes a photo of her paper datasheet with her personal phone so she can enter the data at home. What is the primary concern?

  1. A.The photo may be blurry and the data misread.
  2. B.She should have used a tablet instead.
  3. C.Storing protected client information on a personal device likely violates privacy requirements and agency policy.Correct
  4. D.Data entry should always be done at the clinic for accuracy.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Client data are protected information. Moving them onto an unsecured personal device — which is backed up to personal cloud storage and accessible to others — is a privacy and record-keeping violation regardless of intent.

A is wrong because image quality is a trivial concern next to the privacy breach. B is wrong because a personal tablet raises exactly the same problem. D is wrong because location is not the issue; secure handling of protected information is.

Question 4

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.4medium

A client's grandmother, who is not listed as an authorised contact, asks the RBT how the client is progressing. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Give a brief general update, since she is family.
  2. B.Politely explain that she can only share information with authorised individuals and refer her to the supervisor or the parent.Correct
  3. C.Share the information but ask her not to repeat it.
  4. D.Tell her that the client is not making progress.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Authorisation, not family relationship, determines who may receive client information. Declining warmly and pointing her to the right person respects both confidentiality and the family.

A is wrong because being a relative does not confer authorisation. C is wrong because a request for discretion does not cure an unauthorised disclosure. D is wrong because it discloses information and offers a clinical judgement the RBT is not qualified to give.

Question 5

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.5medium

An RBT realises at the end of the week that she has not submitted session notes for three sessions. What should she do?

  1. A.Write them now from memory to catch up.
  2. B.Complete them as accurately as she can from her contemporaneous data, note that they were completed late, and inform her supervisor.Correct
  3. C.Skip them, since the sessions already happened.
  4. D.Ask a colleague who was nearby to help fill in the details.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The notes must be completed, based on the data actually recorded during those sessions, with the lateness documented honestly and disclosed. That preserves both the record and its integrity.

A is wrong if it means inventing detail from memory rather than working from recorded data — reconstructed narrative presented as contemporaneous is a documentation violation. C is wrong because session notes are required for service verification. D is wrong because a colleague cannot attest to sessions she did not deliver.

Question 6

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2hard

Which statement should not appear in an RBT's session note?

  1. A."Client's aggression is caused by his anxiety disorder."Correct
  2. B."Client engaged in 4 instances of elopement during the community outing."
  3. C."Client independently completed 6 of 8 steps in the handwashing task analysis."
  4. D."Session ended 10 minutes early at the parent's request."

Why this is the answer

A is correct as the answer to avoid. It asserts a diagnostic cause. RBTs do not diagnose, and stating a causal link between a condition and a behavior in a clinical record is both outside scope and unsupported by observation.

B is wrong as a problem because it is a clean count of an operationally defined behavior. C is wrong as a problem because it reports task-analysis data factually. D is wrong as a problem because it documents a relevant, observable session event.

Question 7

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.3medium

An RBT finishes a session at a client's home and needs to transport paper datasheets back to the clinic. What is the appropriate practice?

  1. A.Leave them on the passenger seat for easy access.
  2. B.Transport them in a secure, closed container as her agency's policy specifies, and not leave them unattended.Correct
  3. C.Photograph them and discard the originals.
  4. D.Leave them at the client's home to avoid transporting them.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Protected information must stay secure in transit. Following the agency's specified method — a locked bag or closed folder, never left unattended in a vehicle — meets both legal and workplace requirements.

A is wrong because papers visible in a car are exposed to anyone who looks in and are a common source of breaches. C is wrong because photographing to a personal device creates a new breach and destroying originals may violate record-retention rules. D is wrong because leaving records in an uncontrolled setting neither secures them nor gets them into the client's file.

Question 8

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.1medium

Which of these should an RBT report to her supervisor as a variable that might affect the client?

  1. A.The RBT changed her own commute route.
  2. B.The client's family moved house over the weekend.Correct
  3. C.The clinic ordered new datasheets.
  4. D.A different client had a difficult session.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. A house move is a major environmental change that can plausibly affect sleep, routine and behavior — exactly the kind of variable a supervisor needs when interpreting a shift in the data.

A is wrong because the RBT's commute has no bearing on the client. C is wrong because a stationery order is administrative. D is wrong because another client's session is unrelated and discussing it would raise confidentiality questions.

Question 9

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.4hard

A teacher asks an RBT during a school-based session, "What's his diagnosis, and what medications is he on?" How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Explain that she cannot share that information and direct the question to the supervisor or the family.Correct
  2. B.Answer, since the teacher works with the client daily.
  3. C.Answer the diagnosis question but not the medication one.
  4. D.Tell the teacher she is not allowed to talk to her at all.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Working with the client does not by itself authorise access to diagnostic or medical information. Redirecting the question preserves confidentiality while keeping the professional relationship intact.

B is wrong because proximity to the client is not authorisation. C is wrong because both items are protected information; splitting them does not help. D is wrong because it is false and damages a working relationship the client depends on — RBTs collaborate with school staff within their scope.

Question 10

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2easy

What is the primary purpose of a session note?

  1. A.To document objectively what services were delivered and what the data showed, for clinical and service-verification purposes.Correct
  2. B.To record the RBT's personal reflections on the session.
  3. C.To provide the family with a summary of the day.
  4. D.To justify the length of the session to the supervisor.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Session notes serve two functions at once: a clinical record of what was implemented and observed, and verification that the billed service was actually delivered.

B is wrong because personal reflection is not what a clinical record captures. C is wrong because although families may receive updates, that is not the note's purpose or audience. D is wrong because the note documents services delivered; it is not an argument in the RBT's defence.

Question 11

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.5hard

An RBT's data show a client had a very poor session, well below his usual performance. Her supervisor is reviewing progress for a funding report this week. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Report the data exactly as recorded.Correct
  2. B.Omit the session, since it is unrepresentative.
  3. C.Average it with the previous session so the graph looks smoother.
  4. D.Report it but describe the session as shorter than it was.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Data are reported as recorded, regardless of who is reviewing them or what decision hangs on them. An unusual session is genuinely informative, and the RBT can note any circumstances she observed.

B is wrong because omitting inconvenient data is falsification by selection. C is wrong because averaging creates a value that was never measured. D is wrong because misstating session length is a documentation and potentially a billing violation.

Question 12

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.3medium

An RBT is asked by her agency to keep client records for a specified number of years. What is this an example of?

  1. A.A clinical decision made by the supervisor.
  2. B.A confidentiality violation.
  3. C.An optional best practice.
  4. D.Compliance with legal, regulatory and workplace record-retention requirements.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Retention periods for clinical records are set by law, funder rules and agency policy, and complying with them is part of the RBT's documentation responsibilities.

A is wrong because retention is a legal and administrative requirement, not a clinical judgement about a client. C is wrong because retention is mandatory, not discretionary. B is wrong because properly retaining records securely is the opposite of a confidentiality violation.

Question 13

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.4medium

A parent asks the RBT whether her son will "ever be able to live independently". How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Give her honest opinion based on what she has seen.
  2. B.Reassure her that he will, to reduce her worry.
  3. C.Say that nobody can predict anything.
  4. D.Acknowledge the importance of the question and explain that the supervising BCBA is the right person to discuss long-term outcomes.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Prognosis is outside the RBT's scope. Taking the question seriously while routing it to the supervisor respects the parent and stays within role.

A is wrong because an opinion on long-term outcome is a clinical prediction an RBT is not qualified to make. C is wrong because although technically cautious, it is dismissive and leaves the parent with nothing. B is wrong because false reassurance is both a scope violation and potentially harmful.

Question 14

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2medium

An RBT writes: "Client refused to work for the first 20 minutes." How could this be improved?

  1. A.Replace it with a description of what the client actually did — for example, that he did not respond to 14 presented SDs within 10 seconds each.Correct
  2. B.Add that the client was being difficult.
  3. C.Remove the sentence entirely.
  4. D.Add her hypothesis about why he refused.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. "Refused" is a summary that hides the data. Describing how many opportunities were presented and what the client did with each turns an impression into a measurement.

B is wrong because "difficult" adds a second judgement rather than removing the first. C is wrong because the period genuinely happened and belongs in the record — it just needs objective description. D is wrong because speculation about causes does not belong in a factual session note.

Question 15

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.1easy

During a session, a client tells the RBT that his older brother hit him last night. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Ask detailed follow-up questions to determine whether it is true.
  2. B.Speak to the parent about it at pickup.
  3. C.Note it in the session note and take no further action.
  4. D.Follow her agency's reporting procedure and notify her supervisor promptly, as mandated reporting requirements may apply.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. RBTs are typically mandated reporters. A disclosure of possible harm is escalated immediately through the agency's procedure and to the supervisor — it is not the RBT's job to verify it first.

A is wrong because interrogating a child can contaminate an investigation and is not the RBT's role. C is wrong because documenting without reporting fails the mandated-reporting obligation. B is wrong because approaching the family directly may place the child at greater risk.

Question 16

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.5medium

Why does timeliness matter in reporting session data?

  1. A.It makes the RBT's workload easier to manage.
  2. B.It is required only for billing purposes.
  3. C.Supervisors make treatment decisions from the data, and stale data means decisions are made on out-of-date information.Correct
  4. D.It reduces the amount of supervision required.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Data drive clinical decisions. A program that is not working needs to be identified this week, not next month, so late data can mean weeks of ineffective teaching.

A is wrong because workload convenience is a side effect, not the reason. B is wrong because billing is one requirement among several, and the clinical reason is the primary one. D is wrong because supervision requirements are set independently of documentation timeliness.

Question 17

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.3hard

An RBT posts in a private online group for behavior technicians: "Anyone have ideas for a 6-year-old with escape-maintained aggression who lives near the Riverside clinic?" What is the problem?

  1. A.There is no problem, since the group is private and no name was used.
  2. B.She should have asked her supervisor first, but the post itself is fine.
  3. C.She should have asked in a larger group.
  4. D.The combination of age, behavior and location could identify the client, so this is a confidentiality breach.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Identifiability does not require a name. Age, presenting behavior and a specific location can be enough to identify a client to anyone in that community, and "private" groups are neither private nor secure.

A is wrong because omitting the name is not the standard; the standard is whether the person could be identified. C is wrong because a bigger audience increases the risk. B is wrong because supervisor approval would not authorise disclosing client information to an online group.

Question 18

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2medium

An RBT realises after submitting a session note that she recorded the wrong date. What should she do?

  1. A.Leave it, since the content is accurate.
  2. B.Delete the note and write a new one.
  3. C.Correct it using her agency's documented amendment procedure, which preserves the original entry.Correct
  4. D.Write a second note with the correct date and ignore the first.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Clinical records are corrected through a formal amendment process that leaves a visible trail of what was changed, when and by whom.

A is wrong because a wrong service date affects service verification and possibly billing. B is wrong because deleting destroys the audit trail that record-keeping rules exist to protect. D is wrong because leaving a known-incorrect note in the record alongside a correct one creates a contradictory file.

Question 19

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.4medium

A parent asks the RBT to explain how the reinforcement system works so she can use it at home. How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Design a simplified home version for the parent.
  2. B.Decline, since parent training is outside the RBT role.
  3. C.Explain the procedure as it is written in the plan and let the supervisor know the parent is interested in home implementation.Correct
  4. D.Tell the parent to read the behavior plan herself.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Explaining a procedure the RBT implements is within scope, and flagging the parent's interest lets the supervisor arrange proper caregiver training with the right structure and follow-up.

B is wrong because it needlessly refuses something the RBT can appropriately do. A is wrong because designing a modified home protocol is a clinical decision reserved for the supervisor. D is wrong because handing over a clinical document without explanation is unhelpful and may exceed what the parent is meant to receive unaccompanied.

Question 20

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.1medium

An RBT notices that a client has a bruise on his arm that was not there last session. What should she do?

  1. A.Ask the client how he got it and record his answer.
  2. B.Mention it casually to the parent at the end of the session.
  3. C.Take a photograph for the record.
  4. D.Document the observation objectively and report it to her supervisor following agency procedure.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. The RBT records what she actually observed — location, size, appearance — without speculation, and escalates it through the agency's procedure so any reporting obligation is handled properly.

A is wrong because questioning the client is investigation, which is not the RBT's role and can compromise a later inquiry. C is wrong because photographing a client's body raises serious privacy and consent problems and is rarely authorised. B is wrong because a casual mention bypasses the required reporting route.

Question 21

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.5hard

An RBT is running late and submits her data before the session ends, estimating the last ten minutes. The estimate turns out to be exactly right. Is this acceptable?

  1. A.No — reporting data that were estimated rather than recorded is falsification, regardless of whether the numbers happen to match.Correct
  2. B.Yes, because the data turned out to be accurate.
  3. C.Yes, provided she notes that it was an estimate.
  4. D.Only if her supervisor approves it in advance.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The requirement is that reported data are what was actually measured. Submitting estimates as measurements is falsification; that a guess coincided with reality is luck, not accuracy.

B is wrong because the outcome does not change the nature of the act. C is wrong because labelling it does not make estimated data submitted as session data acceptable — the correct action is to record and submit afterward. D is wrong because no supervisor can authorise reporting unmeasured data as measured.

Question 22

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2easy

Which detail belongs in a session note for service verification?

  1. A.The RBT's opinion of the client's family.
  2. B.The date, start and end times, location, and services delivered.Correct
  3. C.A list of what the RBT plans to do next month.
  4. D.Comments about other clients seen that day.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Service verification requires the objective facts of the service: when it happened, how long it lasted, where, and what was actually delivered.

A is wrong because opinions about a family are unprofessional and have no place in a clinical record. C is wrong because future planning is the supervisor's domain and belongs in program documentation. D is wrong because referencing other clients in this client's record is a confidentiality breach.

Question 23

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.4hard

An RBT is asked to attend a school meeting about her client. What is her appropriate role?

  1. A.Present the client's progress and recommend program changes.
  2. B.Decline to attend, as meetings are outside the RBT role.
  3. C.Report factual observations and data within her scope, and defer clinical interpretation and recommendations to the supervisor.Correct
  4. D.Represent the agency's position on the client's placement.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The RBT can contribute exactly what she has: direct observations and the data she collected. Interpretation and recommendations require the supervisor's clinical authority.

A is wrong because recommending program changes is a clinical decision outside her scope. B is wrong because RBTs frequently and appropriately attend meetings — the constraint is on what she says, not whether she attends. D is wrong because representing organisational positions on placement is not an RBT function.

Question 24

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.3medium

Which practice best protects client confidentiality in a shared clinic workspace?

  1. A.Discussing cases quietly in the hallway.
  2. B.Leaving files on the desk but turning the monitor away.
  3. C.Using client initials instead of full names in conversation.
  4. D.Keeping datasheets face down or filed, and discussing clients only in private areas with authorised staff.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Physical security of records plus restricting discussion to private spaces and authorised people addresses both the visual and the verbal routes by which information leaks.

A is wrong because a hallway is a shared space and volume does not make it private. C is wrong because initials in a small clinic are usually still identifying. B is wrong because it protects the screen while leaving paper records exposed on the desk.

Question 25

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.1medium

A client has been unusually lethargic for three consecutive sessions and his data have dropped sharply. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Wait to see whether it resolves on its own.
  2. B.Recommend that the family see a doctor.
  3. C.Increase the reinforcement magnitude to compensate.
  4. D.Report the pattern to her supervisor promptly so it can be considered alongside the data.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. A sustained change in the client's presentation alongside a data drop is exactly the kind of variable the supervisor must know about before drawing conclusions about the program.

A is wrong because delay means the supervisor may misread the graph as a treatment failure. C is wrong because changing reinforcement parameters is an unauthorised plan modification. B is wrong because making medical recommendations is outside the RBT's scope; reporting the observation is not.

Question 26

E. Documentation and ReportingTask E.2hard

An RBT's supervisor returns a session note asking her to remove the phrase "client was manipulative". What is the best reason for the change?

  1. A.The word is too informal for a clinical record.
  2. B.It might upset the family if they read the note.
  3. C.It attributes intent to the client rather than describing observable behavior, and is not something that can be verified.Correct
  4. D.It is too brief to be useful.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. "Manipulative" is a judgement about motive. Nobody can observe intent, so the claim cannot be verified and it substitutes a characterisation of the client for a description of behavior.

A is wrong because the problem is accuracy and scope, not register. B is wrong because although family readability matters, the note would be improper even if never read. D is wrong because length is not the issue — a longer passage built on the same inference would be equally unacceptable.

F. Ethics

Formerly the Professional Conduct and Scope of Practice domain

28 questions · ~15% of the real exam (11 of 75 scored questions) · take this as a quiz · study guide

Question 1

F. EthicsTask F.4medium

A client's mother asks her RBT to babysit on weekends for cash. How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Decline, explaining that it would create a multiple relationship, and discuss it with her supervisor.Correct
  2. B.Accept, as long as it does not interfere with session times.
  3. C.Accept, but only if she does not discuss therapy during the babysitting.
  4. D.Ask her supervisor to approve the arrangement.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Babysitting creates a second, personal relationship alongside the professional one. Multiple relationships compromise objectivity and are avoided, and the supervisor should know the request was made.

B is wrong because scheduling is not the problem; the dual role is. C is wrong because avoiding therapy talk does not undo the conflict of interest. D is wrong because a supervisor cannot authorise a relationship the ethics code directs RBTs to avoid, and framing it as approvable misunderstands the issue.

Question 2

F. EthicsTask F.7medium

An RBT posts on social media: "Such a good day with my little guy — three new words today! 🎉" No name or photo is included. What is the concern?

  1. A.There is no concern, since no identifying details were shared.
  2. B.She should have included the client's progress data.
  3. C.It discloses information about a client's treatment publicly, and followers who know the RBT's caseload may identify the client.Correct
  4. D.She should have posted it in the evening instead.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Anyone who knows where the RBT works, or which family she sees, can connect the post to a specific child. Sharing clinical progress publicly is a disclosure regardless of whether a name appears.

A is wrong because absence of a name is not the confidentiality standard; identifiability is. B is wrong because adding data would make the breach substantially worse. D is wrong because timing has nothing to do with it.

Question 3

F. EthicsTask F.6hard

An RBT realises she has not received the required supervision this month because her BCBA has been on leave. What should she do?

  1. A.Continue working and make up the supervision next month.
  2. B.Ask another RBT to observe her instead.
  3. C.Notify her employer and the responsible supervisor immediately and stop providing RBT services until supervision is arranged.Correct
  4. D.Continue working, since the lapse was not her fault.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. RBT services must be delivered under required supervision. When supervision lapses, the RBT escalates immediately and does not continue practising as an RBT until it is restored.

A is wrong because supervision cannot be back-filled to cover services already delivered without it. B is wrong because supervision must come from a qualified supervisor, not a peer at the same credential level. D is wrong because the requirement is not waived by the cause of the lapse.

Question 4

F. EthicsTask F.1easy

Which best describes the RBT's role?

  1. A.To independently design and modify behavior intervention plans.
  2. B.To diagnose and treat behavioral disorders.
  3. C.To implement behavior plans designed and monitored by a qualified supervisor.Correct
  4. D.To supervise other RBTs.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. The RBT is a paraprofessional who delivers behavior-analytic services under the direction of a supervisor who designs the programming and monitors its effects.

A is wrong because designing and modifying plans requires the analytic training of a BCBA or BCaBA. B is wrong because diagnosis is outside the scope of behavior analysis practice at any level, and treatment design is not an RBT function. D is wrong because RBTs do not supervise other RBTs.

Question 5

F. EthicsTask F.4medium

A client's grandmother gives the RBT a $100 gift card at the end of the year. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Accept it graciously, since it was freely given.
  2. B.Decline politely, explain that she cannot accept gifts of significant value, and inform her supervisor.Correct
  3. C.Accept it and share it with the team.
  4. D.Accept it but not tell her employer.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Gifts of meaningful value create obligation and compromise the professional relationship. Declining warmly and telling the supervisor handles it transparently and protects everyone.

A is wrong because a gift being freely offered does not remove the conflict of interest it creates. C is wrong because distributing it does not change that a significant gift was accepted. D is wrong because concealing it from the employer compounds the problem with a lack of transparency.

Question 6

F. EthicsTask F.10hard

An RBT is assigned a client whose family speaks primarily Somali and observes cultural practices she is unfamiliar with. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. A.Proceed as usual, since behavioral procedures are the same for everyone.
  2. B.Ask the family to adapt to the clinic's usual routines.
  3. C.Ask her supervisor for guidance and interpretation support, and approach the family's practices and preferences with genuine curiosity and respect.Correct
  4. D.Request reassignment to a family with a similar background to her own.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Cultural humility — new emphasis in the 3rd Edition — means recognising the limits of your own perspective, seeking support, and treating the family's values as information that shapes good service rather than an obstacle.

A is wrong because procedures may be technically similar but goals, reinforcers and family priorities are culturally situated. B is wrong because it puts the burden of adaptation on the family. D is wrong because requesting reassignment on this basis avoids a professional responsibility rather than meeting it.

Question 7

F. EthicsTask F.9hard

An RBT's certification expired two weeks ago and her renewal is still processing. Her supervisor says she can keep working because he is observing her closely. What should she do?

  1. A.Stop providing services as an RBT until her certification is active, and inform her employer.Correct
  2. B.Keep working, since her supervisor authorised it.
  3. C.Keep working but stop billing for the sessions.
  4. D.Keep working and note the lapse in her session notes.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Practising as an RBT requires active certification. Neither close supervision nor a supervisor's say-so substitutes for the credential, and continuing to work risks both the client and the RBT's future certification.

B is wrong because a supervisor cannot authorise practice without an active credential. C is wrong because the violation is practising uncertified, not billing. D is wrong because documenting the lapse does not make the practice permissible.

Question 8

F. EthicsTask F.2medium

During an observation, an RBT's supervisor points out that she is delivering prompts too quickly. How should she respond?

  1. A.Explain why her method works better for this client.
  2. B.Ask a colleague whether the supervisor is right.
  3. C.Agree in the moment but continue with her own approach.
  4. D.Thank the supervisor, ask any clarifying questions, and implement the change in the next session.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Responding appropriately to feedback means understanding it and actually changing performance. Asking clarifying questions is welcome; quiet non-compliance is not.

A is wrong because leading with a defence of an unauthorised deviation misses that the RBT implements the plan as designed. C is wrong because agreeing while continuing as before is a fidelity and integrity problem. B is wrong because canvassing peers to second-guess the supervisor does not resolve anything and undermines the supervisory relationship.

Question 9

F. EthicsTask F.5medium

Which action best maintains client dignity?

  1. A.Providing privacy during personal care routines and speaking to the client respectfully regardless of his communication level.Correct
  2. B.Discussing the client's toileting program in the waiting room so the parent can hear.
  3. C.Talking about the client in the third person while he is present.
  4. D.Using a loud voice so the client definitely hears instructions.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Dignity means privacy for personal routines and age-respectful communication — including with clients who do not speak, since a limited vocal repertoire says nothing about comprehension.

B is wrong because it discusses private information where others can hear. C is wrong because talking about someone as though they are not there is demeaning. D is wrong because raising your voice unnecessarily is neither respectful nor effective.

Question 10

F. EthicsTask F.8hard

An RBT sees a colleague using a physical procedure that is not in the client's plan and appears to cause the client distress. What should she do?

  1. A.Report the incident to her supervisor promptly, following agency and ethics-code reporting requirements.Correct
  2. B.Say nothing, since it is not her client.
  3. C.Confront the colleague publicly during the session.
  4. D.Wait to see whether it happens again before deciding.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The ethics code obliges RBTs to report conduct that risks client harm. Escalating promptly to the supervisor is the correct route and protects a client who cannot protect himself.

B is wrong because ethical obligations extend to all clients, not only your own caseload. C is wrong because a public confrontation mid-session may escalate the situation and expose the client further. D is wrong because waiting for a second incident leaves the client at risk in the meantime.

Question 11

F. EthicsTask F.10medium

An RBT is asked to implement a feeding protocol she has never been trained on. What does practising within scope of competence require?

  1. A.Declining to implement it until she has received competency-based training, and telling her supervisor.Correct
  2. B.Attempting it carefully and asking for help if it goes wrong.
  3. C.Watching an online video about the procedure first.
  4. D.Asking the parent how it is usually done.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Scope of competence is defined by training and demonstrated skill, not by willingness. Feeding protocols carry genuine medical risk, so declining until properly trained is the safe and required action.

B is wrong because "careful" improvisation on a risky protocol can harm the client. C is wrong because watching a video is not competency-based training with performance feedback. D is wrong because the parent is not the authorising clinical source for a protocol's implementation.

Question 12

F. EthicsTask F.3medium

A parent asks the RBT, "Do you think we should switch to a different ABA provider?" How should she respond?

  1. A.Give her honest opinion about the agency.
  2. B.Acknowledge the question without offering an opinion on the agency, and encourage the parent to raise it with the supervising BCBA.Correct
  3. C.Tell the parent this is not something she can discuss.
  4. D.Recommend a specific alternative provider she respects.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Service decisions belong to the family in conversation with the clinical leadership. The RBT can respond warmly and route it to the person who can actually address it.

A is wrong because offering an opinion on the agency's suitability exceeds her role and may reflect a conflict of interest. C is wrong because a flat refusal is dismissive when a warm redirection is available. D is wrong because recommending a competitor is both outside her role and a conflict of interest.

Question 13

F. EthicsTask F.7easy

An RBT runs into a client and his mother at the grocery store. The mother's friend asks, "How do you two know each other?" What is the appropriate response?

  1. A.Explain that she is the child's RBT.
  2. B.Let the parent decide what to disclose, and say nothing that reveals the professional relationship.Correct
  3. C.Say she works at the clinic the family attends.
  4. D.Say she is a family friend.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Whether to disclose that a child receives services is the family's decision, not the RBT's. Following the parent's lead protects confidentiality in a public setting.

A is wrong because it discloses that the child is a client to someone with no authorisation. C is wrong because naming the clinic reveals the same information indirectly. D is wrong because stating an untruth about the relationship is dishonest; the RBT can simply defer to the parent without inventing a cover story.

Question 14

F. EthicsTask F.6medium

Which is a requirement of RBT supervision?

  1. A.Supervision may be provided entirely by written feedback.
  2. B.Supervision may be provided by another RBT with more experience.
  3. C.Supervision is only required during the first six months of certification.
  4. D.Supervision must include direct observation of the RBT delivering services with a client.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. RBT supervision requires the supervisor to observe the RBT working directly with a client, because reading a report cannot reveal how a procedure is actually being implemented.

A is wrong because written feedback alone cannot satisfy the observation requirement. C is wrong because supervision is ongoing for as long as the RBT practises. B is wrong because supervision must come from a qualified supervisor at the appropriate credential level, not a peer RBT.

Question 15

F. EthicsTask F.4hard

An RBT discovers that a new client is her neighbour's child, and the two families socialise regularly. What should she do?

  1. A.Say nothing, since she can remain objective.
  2. B.Disclose the existing relationship to her supervisor so the assignment can be evaluated.Correct
  3. C.Ask the family to stop socialising with her family.
  4. D.Accept the case but avoid discussing it outside sessions.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Disclosure lets the supervisor evaluate whether the pre-existing relationship compromises objectivity or confidentiality, and reassign if needed. The RBT's job is to surface it, not to judge it alone.

A is wrong because self-assessed objectivity is exactly what conflict-of-interest rules do not rely on. C is wrong because asking a family to change their social life is inappropriate and does not undo the existing relationship. D is wrong because discretion does not resolve a structural conflict of interest.

Question 16

F. EthicsTask F.1medium

A client makes rapid progress and the RBT believes a program should be discontinued. What should she do?

  1. A.Discontinue it and document the reason.
  2. B.Reduce the number of trials gradually until it fades out.
  3. C.Ask the parent whether they agree it can stop.
  4. D.Continue implementing it as written and share her observation and data with her supervisor.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Deciding when a program ends is a clinical judgement made by the supervisor from the data. The RBT's observation is valuable input, delivered through the right channel.

A is wrong because unilaterally discontinuing a program is an unauthorised plan change. C is wrong because parents do not authorise clinical protocol changes. B is wrong because quietly tapering is still an unauthorised modification, and a harder one for the supervisor to detect in the data.

Question 17

F. EthicsTask F.8medium

Which situation triggers a mandated reporting obligation for an RBT in most jurisdictions?

  1. A.The RBT has reasonable suspicion that a client is being abused or neglected.Correct
  2. B.A parent cancels sessions frequently.
  3. C.A colleague is often late to sessions.
  4. D.A client's behavior plan is not producing progress.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Mandated reporting is triggered by reasonable suspicion of abuse or neglect. The RBT reports through the required channel; she does not have to prove anything first.

B is wrong because frequent cancellations may be a clinical or engagement concern but are not in themselves abuse or neglect. C is wrong because lateness is a personnel matter for the employer. D is wrong because lack of progress is a clinical issue for the supervisor to address.

Question 18

F. EthicsTask F.5hard

An RBT is running a program in a busy clinic room and the client has a toileting accident. What best preserves his dignity?

  1. A.Announce to the room that she needs help so someone can bring supplies.
  2. B.Continue the session and address it at the end.
  3. C.Move the client to a private area, address it calmly and discreetly, and avoid drawing attention.Correct
  4. D.Explain to the other clients what happened so they understand the delay.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Dignity means handling personal care privately, calmly and without commentary, exactly as one would want for oneself.

A is wrong because announcing it to a room exposes something deeply private. B is wrong because leaving the client in that state is a welfare and hygiene problem as well as a dignity one. D is wrong because explaining a client's personal care event to other clients is a confidentiality breach and humiliating.

Question 19

F. EthicsTask F.9medium

Which is an ongoing requirement for maintaining RBT certification?

  1. A.Completing a new 40-hour training course each year.
  2. B.Passing the RBT exam again every two years.
  3. C.Completing the renewal application, the renewal competency assessment, and meeting ongoing supervision requirements.Correct
  4. D.Accumulating continuing education units in a related field.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Maintaining the credential involves the annual renewal process, a renewal competency assessment conducted by a qualified supervisor, and continuing to meet supervision requirements while practising.

A is wrong because the 40-hour training is an initial requirement, not an annual one. B is wrong because retaking the examination is not part of routine renewal. D is wrong because CEUs are a requirement for BCBAs, not part of the RBT renewal structure.

Question 20

F. EthicsTask F.3medium

A client's teacher asks the RBT to "just try a different approach" during a school session because the current one is disruptive to the class. How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Comply, since the RBT is a guest in the classroom.
  2. B.Explain that she implements the plan as written, and contact her supervisor about the concern promptly.Correct
  3. C.Refuse and continue without further discussion.
  4. D.Modify the procedure slightly to compromise.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. The RBT implements the plan as designed, and the teacher's concern is legitimate information the supervisor needs in order to adapt the plan to the classroom context.

A is wrong because being in someone else's setting does not transfer clinical authority to them. C is wrong because a flat refusal without explanation or escalation damages a working relationship and leaves the concern unaddressed. D is wrong because a partial modification is still an unauthorised change to the protocol.

Question 21

F. EthicsTask F.7hard

An RBT receives a friend request on social media from a client's parent. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. A.Accept it, since maintaining rapport with families is important.
  2. B.Decline it, and if needed explain kindly that she keeps professional and personal accounts separate.Correct
  3. C.Accept it but restrict what the parent can see.
  4. D.Ignore it without any response.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. A social media connection creates a personal relationship layered onto a professional one, and exposes both parties' private lives. Declining kindly, with a brief explanation if appropriate, maintains the boundary without damaging rapport.

A is wrong because rapport is built in sessions, not through personal social media. C is wrong because privacy settings do not change the fact that a dual relationship has been established. D is wrong because silently ignoring can read as personal rejection when a brief professional explanation would prevent that.

Question 22

F. EthicsTask F.1easy

A parent asks the RBT to add a new goal because she thinks her son should be learning to tie his shoes. What should the RBT do?

  1. A.Add it to today's session, since it is a reasonable goal.
  2. B.Pass the request to the supervising BCBA, who determines goals and programming.Correct
  3. C.Explain that goals cannot be changed once written.
  4. D.Teach it informally without adding it to the program.

Why this is the answer

B is correct. Goal selection is clinical programming. The RBT welcomes the input and routes it to the supervisor, who can assess whether the skill is appropriate and how to sequence it.

A is wrong because adding goals is not within the RBT's authority, however sensible the goal is. C is wrong because it is false — programs are revised regularly by the supervisor. D is wrong because teaching a skill "informally" is still unauthorised programming and produces no data.

Question 23

F. EthicsTask F.2hard

An RBT disagrees with her supervisor's feedback and believes the supervisor misread the situation. What is the most professional course of action?

  1. A.Implement the feedback and raise her perspective with the supervisor directly and respectfully.Correct
  2. B.Implement the feedback and say nothing.
  3. C.Continue with her own approach and document why.
  4. D.Raise it with the agency director instead.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. Responding well to feedback and advocating for a clinical observation are compatible: implement as directed, then have the conversation with the person who can act on it.

B is wrong because staying silent withholds information the supervisor may genuinely need. C is wrong because continuing unilaterally is a fidelity breach, and documenting it does not authorise it. D is wrong because escalating over the supervisor's head before speaking to her directly skips the appropriate first step.

Question 24

F. EthicsTask F.10medium

A family asks that a religious practice be respected during session times. How should the RBT respond?

  1. A.Explain that session structure cannot be changed.
  2. B.Ask the family to explain why the practice is important.
  3. C.Agree and adjust the session on her own.
  4. D.Bring the request to her supervisor so the schedule and programming can be adapted where possible.Correct

Why this is the answer

D is correct. Respecting family values is a professional obligation, and any change to session structure or programming is arranged through the supervisor. Raising it promptly is the responsive action.

A is wrong because dismissing the request outright disregards the family's values and is not the RBT's decision to make. C is wrong because unilaterally restructuring sessions is outside her authority even when well-intentioned. B is wrong because requiring the family to justify a religious practice is intrusive; the request itself is sufficient.

Question 25

F. EthicsTask F.8medium

An RBT makes a significant implementation error that may have affected a client's data for several sessions. What should she do?

  1. A.Report the error to her supervisor so the affected data can be evaluated.Correct
  2. B.Correct her implementation going forward and say nothing, since the error has stopped.
  3. C.Adjust the past data to what it likely would have been.
  4. D.Ask a colleague whether it is worth reporting.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The supervisor may have made decisions based on data collected under a flawed procedure. Reporting lets her judge whether the data are usable and whether the program needs revisiting.

B is wrong because stopping the error does not undo its effect on the record. C is wrong because altering past data is falsification. D is wrong because the obligation to report does not depend on a colleague's opinion, and discussing it informally delays it.

Question 26

F. EthicsTask F.6hard

An RBT is offered a new job at a clinic where no BCBA is on staff, and is told she would "work independently" with clients. What is the concern?

  1. A.RBTs cannot deliver behavior-analytic services without a qualified supervisor, so the arrangement would violate certification requirements.Correct
  2. B.The pay is likely lower.
  3. C.She would need to retake the RBT exam.
  4. D.She would not be able to collect data properly.

Why this is the answer

A is correct. The RBT credential is defined by working under supervision. A position with no qualified supervisor cannot be performed as an RBT, regardless of the RBT's competence.

B is wrong because compensation is irrelevant to the certification problem. C is wrong because changing employers does not require re-examination. D is wrong because data collection is a practical task she could perform; the barrier is the absence of required supervision.

Question 27

F. EthicsTask F.5medium

During a session, an RBT is frustrated by a client's repeated non-compliance. What is the appropriate response?

  1. A.Tell the client she is disappointed in him.
  2. B.Take a break from the client until she feels calmer, leaving him unattended.
  3. C.Continue implementing the plan calmly and raise her difficulty with her supervisor afterward.Correct
  4. D.Reduce the demands so the session is easier for both of them.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Professional conduct means the client does not absorb the RBT's frustration. Implementing as written and seeking support afterward addresses the real problem — she needs help with the situation.

A is wrong because expressing disappointment to the client is disrespectful and may function as attention for the very behavior in question. B is wrong because leaving a client unattended is a serious supervision and safety failure. D is wrong because reducing demands on her own initiative is an unauthorised plan change made for the RBT's comfort.

Question 28

F. EthicsTask F.3easy

A parent asks the RBT what her son's behavior data showed this week. What is the appropriate response?

  1. A.Interpret the trend and explain what it means for his prognosis.
  2. B.Tell the parent that data are confidential from families.
  3. C.Share the factual data if she is authorised to do so, and refer interpretation and next steps to the supervisor.Correct
  4. D.Say the data look fine to avoid worrying her.

Why this is the answer

C is correct. Reporting what was recorded is within scope when the RBT is authorised to communicate with that parent; interpreting trends and deciding what happens next belongs to the supervisor.

A is wrong because interpreting trends and speaking to prognosis exceeds the RBT role. B is wrong because parents are generally entitled to information about their child's services. D is wrong because offering false reassurance misrepresents the record and undermines trust.